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8 answers

Yes. Power seeking preachers have changed the bible to their advantage. For exp: Look at Gen 2:13. "In the original KJV it says:

And the name of the second river is Gihon: the same is it that compasseth the whole land of Ethiopia"

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genisis%202:13&version=9

In the New International Version it says:
The name of the second river is the Gihon; it winds through the entire land of Cush. [a]

Footnotes:

1. Genesis 2:13 Possibly southeast Mesopotamia

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genisis%202:13;&version=31;

In the later bible it has taken Ethopia/Cush out of Africa and moved it somewhere else. Sounds like straight racism to me.

2006-12-27 00:06:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

WHY IS BIBLE TRANSLATED AS IT IS?

Most people wanted the bible. Religion existed.
FOR NO WAR:
For no war, hades, sheol, cave, sepulchre, tomb, pit, grave, the gates of the grave Isa.38:10;
Matt.16:18;or cemetery as we call it, or gates of hell as the bible calls it. Death and hell [ all named ], is cast into the lake of fire. THESE ARE TRANSLATED TO COVER IT ALL.

IT TAKE A WHILE IN STUDY TO GET ALL IN ORDER FOR RIGHT MEANING OF WORDS.

In the 443 years before Christ [ O.T. is done ], and into the Pharisee religions as at Luke 16:14-31; Only the apostles of Jesus would understand Jesus reading of the heart of the pharisee leaders that did not even know the teachings of Moses.
Jesus explains how importand it is to know the bible facts Luke 16:16,17,29,31; All he said in this, if it is not taught in the bible, it is taught in the world.
PEOPLE HAVE TO LEARN WHAT IS OF THE WORLD AND WHAT IS OF THE BIBLE.

2006-12-27 00:52:15 · answer #2 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

i hit upon it outstanding how worked up the KJV basically crowd recover from the call "Jehovah" whilst the King James makes use of the call Jehovah, albeit in basically some places. If the King James is "the" Bible, how are you able to deny it ? If it became precise in some places, why no longer the thousands of others ?

2016-10-28 11:14:31 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I've always heard the copyright of the NIV is owned by a homosexual atheist. You hear all kinds of nonsense, Like the Palmalive Corp funnels money to the Satanic church. People get bored and make stuff up.

2006-12-26 23:58:54 · answer #4 · answered by djm749 6 · 0 1

KJV is the only one no one has the copyright laws to, anyone can publish it. Also there are big differences between versions.

2006-12-27 00:02:54 · answer #5 · answered by eniomelmahnarb 2 · 0 0

No hidden agenda, every thing is very clear.

2006-12-27 00:02:07 · answer #6 · answered by gwhiz1052 7 · 0 0

no;just with questions like this

2006-12-26 23:57:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I am sure it potentially exists.

2006-12-27 00:19:35 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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