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Christians is this how it works: As long as something that is stated in Old Testament does not contradict whats written in the New Testament, it is followed?

2006-12-26 14:33:11 · 18 answers · asked by A fan 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

18 answers

Hey

Good question! Half the O.T. laws aren't even followed! Which makes me wonder, did God actually change His mind? Jesus did say that we aren't to consider God's food dirty anymore, what's the point of the O.T. then? And are the Jews and Muslims left in denial? Does this make sense Affan? Doesn't make sense to me!

EDIT: so, the O.T. was written for the Jews, why then is it part of the Bible? Confusing...

=)

2006-12-26 14:39:14 · answer #1 · answered by -♦One-♦-Love♦- 7 · 2 3

The way to gain atonement in the Old Testament no longer applies because atonement is through Christ. For instance, in order to cleanse sin, the Old Testament says to wash your hands, sacrifice an animal, execute the criminal, etc etc etc - none of those rules apply. We were never meant to be saved by the Old Testament law, and in the Sermon on the Mount Jesus reiterated that the Old Testament is just the very most basic laws - in other words the Old Testament was a comparatively "low" moral standard in God's eyes, and still it was virtually impossible to keep the entire Law.

In the Old Testament if something is a sin, then it is still a sin, but the way to cleanse ourself is through Christ and repentance.

Furthermore, we do not need to use the Old Testament as a checklist for all moral laws, because again the Old Testament is just a fraction of what God deems sinful or moral. We learn about what is righteous and what is sinful through the Holy Spirit, which is incorruptible and leads the believers.

2006-12-26 14:46:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Affan,
If you read the Bible carefully, you will find that the Old Testament fortells of Christ. The New Testament fulfills what is spoken and written of in the Old Testament. Christ is all through the Bible, from Genesis all the way to Revelation.

In 2 Timothy 3:16 it says that all scripture is inspired by God. Also it says in the Bible that God can not lie. Therefore on the basis of this infornation, the bible cannot contradict itself, and everything about the scriptures are trustworthy.

Robin.

P.S.

God Bless you.

2006-12-26 15:15:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is not easy to give a rule like that because there maybe something that escapes the purview of that rule , which we must take into account. One rule that usually helps is , scripture interprets scripture.
Also the moral aspects and intent of the law are never changed because that represents Gods likes and dislikes . God suspends carrying out judgements in the NT that is all, the intent and moral aspect remain the same.
Many other laws in the OT had to do with ceremonial uncleaness,or judgements and punishments to be carried out. Those are the things that are suspended, because we receive our washing and cleansing throught the ministry of the Spirit now instituted by Jesus.
This is all derived from Scriptural analysis and reading, everyone has access to it, it is not some hidden rules we make up or something.

2006-12-26 14:39:45 · answer #4 · answered by Socinian F 3 · 1 0

NOPE... The OT was written for the Jewish Nation before Christ was even born. Christ lived during it's reign. After HIS death, he arose and spent time speaking with a number of people. Then, he wasrisen into heaven. After HIS ASSENTION, the Apostles baptized about 3,000 people at Pentecost in Acts 2:38. They were the beginnings of Christ's Church. This began the New TEstament Times. The New TEstament is written for Christians to live by. We live under it's authority! The OT is used "for our learning" and nothing more. I hope that this assists you in your understanding. Have a great week!!
Eds

2006-12-26 14:41:58 · answer #5 · answered by Eds 7 · 0 1

No.

Contrary to popular opinion, the Bible is not the authority for the Christian faith. The Church is.

All of the old law expired when Christ fulfilled all things through his life, death, and resurrection.

Then Jesus founded the new covenant Church, to which he gave all power and authority to act in his name.

Only that of the old which the church has seen fit to readopt or readapt became part of the new covenant (including the modified commandments).

And that's the truth!

I challenge anyone to prove otherwise, from scripture.

2006-12-26 17:05:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

expenses too lots, they think of. regrettably, they assume you already understand how mankind have been given right here, what his nature is, and the prophecies in the old testomony that factor to the forged information in the recent testomony. maximum human beings don't have a clue and don't decide directly to even make the hardship to income it. There are orginizations that supply out the entire bible, yet then there are various cults that supply out a changed translation, or will supply out a King James bible alongside with their very own writen perversion. go purchase a favorite translation from a Christian bookstall.

2016-12-15 08:44:46 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Did God give 613 Mitzvot (Commandments) in the Torah only to say later, "Opps, My mistake. Ignore all that." ?

If you believe in the entire Jesus story, and the interpertations of Paul, then you must accept that you no longer have to keep kosher, nor do you have to be circumcised. God made a mistake.

If you believe that, then your God is less than perfect.

2006-12-26 21:59:53 · answer #8 · answered by forgivebutdonotforget911 6 · 1 0

No.

1Co 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.

Study His Word is the best advice.

>>>>>>>><<<<<<<<<

2006-12-26 14:40:15 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

I agree with Chopper.
However, when trying to work out the context of a text in the Bible, it is better to read and compare other texts in the Bible on the same subject. Is that what you mean?

2006-12-26 14:39:46 · answer #10 · answered by its_just_me 2 · 1 1

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