Both are correct and show it is the line of Jacob I do not believe either was the imediate father if one was it would have to be Heli who was a son of Jacob.
2006-12-26 12:12:49
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answer #1
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answered by djmantx 7
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I'm not a "Christian fundamentalist" (I'm Catholic) but ...
... the answer is, both are right.
That's because the word "son" in the Bible is often used in translations to describe close descendants who were not actually biological children of someone.
A "son" could also be a nephew or a cousin's son. This probably explains the apparent contradiction in Matthew and Luke regarding who Joseph's father was.
Another possibility is that Jacob and Heli were actually the same person -- with the man being identified by his Hebrew name in one case, with a Greek translation of his name being used in the other.
Matthew and Luke were writing to different "audiences" -- Matthew mostly to a Jewish audience, and Luke to a mostly Greek-speaking one. That could explain the difference in names for the same man.
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2006-12-26 11:48:20
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Luke replaced into speaking about Mary (Joseph grew to change into the son of Mary's father at the same time as he married her). 2 causes those various (curiously) genealogies at the on the spot are not a difficulty: First, Luke, being a known practitioner, replaced into extra in all probability to seem on the actual data of the case; Matthew, who wrote often to a Jewish target audience, replaced into in touch about showing that Jesus had a valid declare on the kingly line of David. Mary's kin tree skipped Ahab and Jezebel. It replaced into prophesied that this evil king and queen does not be an element of Messiah's line. for that reason, Mary's line did not qualify Jesus to sit down on David's throne. Joseph, in a international with out the Greeks and Romans, would were eligible to ascend the throne of David. because the criminal father of Jesus, he exceeded this eligibility on to his Son. for that reason, Jesus is qualified with the help of inheritance to sit down on David's throne, yet he's not descended from Ahab and Jezebel. 2d, there are quite some belongings you do not realize about Hebrew genealogies, besides the indisputable fact that the appropriate one thus is that those genealogical lists continually skipped generations, even many generations in a row, determining on basically to record persons of be conscious interior the kin. for that reason in case you've been to jot down this kind of kin tree of your toddler, you may contain your self and your father, yet pass your grand, large grand, and massive large grandfathers, then factor out your large x3 grandfather because he replaced right into a regularly occurring historic parent. that is the way Jewish genealogies were written.
2016-12-01 05:01:16
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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The difference in nearly all the names in Luke’s genealogy of Jesus as compared with Matthew’s is quickly resolved in the fact that Luke traced the line through David’s son Nathan, instead of Solomon as did Matthew. (Lu 3:31; Mt 1:6, 7) Luke evidently follows the ancestry of Mary, thus showing Jesus’ natural descent from David, while Matthew shows Jesus’ legal right to the throne of David by descent from Solomon through Joseph, who was legally Jesus’ father. Both Matthew and Luke signify that Joseph was not Jesus’ actual father but only his adoptive father, giving him legal right. Matthew departs from the style used throughout his genealogy when he comes to Jesus, saying: “Jacob became father to Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ.” (Mt 1:16) Notice that he does not say ‘Joseph became father to Jesus’ but that he was “the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born.” Luke is even more pointed when, after showing earlier that Jesus was actually the Son of God by Mary (Lu 1:32-35), he says: “Jesus . . . being the son, as the opinion was, of Joseph, son of Heli.”—Lu 3:23.
Since Jesus was not the natural son of Joseph but was the Son of God, Luke’s genealogy of Jesus would prove that he was, by human birth, a son of David through his natural mother Mary. Regarding the genealogies of Jesus given by Matthew and by Luke, Frederic Louis Godet wrote: “This study of the text in detail leads us in this way to admit—1. That the genealogical register of Luke is that of Heli, the grandfather of Jesus; 2. That, this affiliation of Jesus by Heli being expressly opposed to His affiliation by Joseph, the document which he has preserved for us can be nothing else in his view than the genealogy of Jesus through Mary. But why does not Luke name Mary, and why pass immediately from Jesus to His grandfather? Ancient sentiment did not comport with the mention of the mother as the genealogical link. Among the Greeks a man was the son of his father, not of his mother; and among the Jews the adage was: ‘Genus matris non vocatur genus [“The descendant of the mother is not called (her) descendant”]’ (‘Baba bathra,’ 110, a).”—Commentary on Luke, 1981, p. 129.
Hope you're satisfied.
2006-12-26 12:22:58
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answer #4
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answered by papavero 6
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Josef's father is Jacob
Jesus does not have a father God created him the same way he created Adam but this time in his mother's womb.
2006-12-26 11:49:39
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answer #5
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answered by suma 3
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The smart money is on Mick Jagger.
2006-12-26 11:41:58
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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i believe it is Jacob
2006-12-26 11:38:54
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answer #7
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answered by larrydoyle52 4
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it was Tom Cruise
2006-12-26 11:38:08
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answer #8
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answered by BRITNEY !!!!!!!!!!!!! 1
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You know...that's a good question. Why don't you ask Satan when you see him. (wink)
2006-12-26 11:49:44
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answer #9
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answered by flyyornek 1
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