Why do we always refer to a man? Is this some sexist behavior? Are women again being discriminated against?
And why Santa? This points to a woman. For a man it should be Santo or San.
2006-12-25 10:34:13 · 11 answers · asked by saehli 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
It can be taken as discriminatory Bcause Santa in spanish refers to a female, whereas Santa Claus is male.
Who knows he could be Gay.
Oooops! sorry Mrs.Claus
2006-12-25 10:52:17 · answer #1 · answered by Phinoeas 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Because the word "Santa" doesn´t come from any Anglo-Latin idiom, where most words ending with an "a" are feminine. It is a Finland tradition and the word comes from a Germanic rooted idiom.
It is not a "fade" that changes every year; it is an old tradition, born long before all this war between sexes began.
In some other languages he is known as "Papai Noel" or "Papa Noel",etc. And "papai" means "father".
"Among all the Nordic countries, the tradition of Santa Claus is particularly strong in Finland. In the late 1920s it was believed that Santa Claus lived on the remote Korvatunturi mountains, in Finnish Lapland."
2006-12-25 10:51:22 · answer #2 · answered by Colorado 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I know that it is short. or more correctly, slang for Saint Nicholas, who was a real historic figure; the Bishop of Myra in 4th Century Asia Minor I believe. Say St Nicholas 15 times real fast and you'll end up saying Santa Claus.
I have also read somewhere that the Scandinavian countries, (not Spanish or Italian countries), from which the American tradition seems to have its strongest roots, used Santa Claus for their name for Father Christmas (the English Tradition) or St Nicholas (The Southern and Eastern European Tradition.) But I'm sorry, I don't have an authority that I can cite for that information.
One other interesting fact: The main source that established most of our strongest current Santa Claus traditions really is the poem, " 'Twas the Night before Christmas". Not the Santa Claus name, however, for that poem calls him St. Nick.
2006-12-25 11:03:28 · answer #3 · answered by Emmaean 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The popular American form Santa Claus originated as a mispronunciation of Dutch Sinterklaas, which is a contracted form of Sint Nicolaas (Saint Nicholas).
As you can see it has nothing to do with Spanish. Furthermore, in Spanish he is called Papá Noel.
2006-12-25 12:11:21 · answer #4 · answered by Martha P 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe the Santa stands for the Latin saint or holy. As in Saint Nicholas.
2006-12-25 12:12:39 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Santa Claus is a variation of his Dutch name, ‘Sinterklaas’ which is a modification of 'Saint Nicholas’ or rather, ‘Sint Nicolaas.’
paaatches --Santa is not the Spanish feminine but rather the bastardized Dutch.
2006-12-25 11:57:30 · answer #6 · answered by paaatches 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Why not Santina Clausita?
Come on , don't take that feminism to far.
It was Santa for many many years and will stay the same for many more to come.And he is a man.No matter if it is an A or an O...Do you really think a woman would cram herself in this red suit eating cookies all night long?
Merry Christmas
2006-12-25 10:40:36 · answer #7 · answered by Einstein 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Whay did you even ask that question?
It is stupid It's like asking a person why is your name lynda well becauce some one liked the name and thought it would work.
Or the person who came up with it might have spoke his name diffrent like Michelle is a boys name in french.
2006-12-25 10:48:18 · answer #8 · answered by Boo 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Because history made it a man and i think theres nuthin rong wit it and im a female uhhhh.... feminists
2006-12-25 10:37:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
DO U REALLY THINK THAT A FEMALE WOULD BE CAPABLE OF DOING SANTA'S JOB???? I DON'T THINK SO...IF SANTA WAS A FEMALE SHE WOULD BE HAVING TRAFFIC ACCIDENTS ALL THE TIME AND NOT DELIVERING THE GIFTS...JUST IMAGEN THAT! ! !
2006-12-25 11:01:11 · answer #10 · answered by P P P 1 · 1⤊ 3⤋