Again, when he was dying on the cross and his mother was crying, he called his mother " you woman" - Can any person call his/her mother "Woman"!!!??? What was the moral of his words?? (Since christians claim that he was God, then any words coming from his mouth must have a moral/teaching behind it, right?)
2006-12-23 18:14:33 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Stop trippin. That's how it translates in English. It was not disrespectful.
2006-12-23 18:17:24 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Woman in the original text is... wait one
Ok, there are a few words for woman. lets look at romans... it means just that, woman.
Romans 1
...for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature...
women here is
thelus {thay'-loos}
which translates
1) of the female sex
2) a woman, a female
In John 2 it is the word is
gune {goo-nay'}
which translates
1) a woman of any age, whether a virgin, or married, or a widow
2) a wife
a) of a betrothed woman
This makes no sense in English...
But how about French ey ... language of love...
OK, If you speak to a betrothed woman in French you say
Madame... blah blah blah
If they are not married you say
Madamoiselle... blah blah blah...
It is a sign of respect to call a woman in France Madame if they are married.
The same is the culture in Jesus time. He was refering to her with respect!...
Score 2 points for the christians YEAH!!!
Why don't you add the 10 points on for best answer two while you are at it... :)
2006-12-24 02:18:59 · answer #2 · answered by floyd 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
okay the bible was translated and retranslated and written by men for purposes such as expanding empire and other less than noble reasons, so there is no way to verify what he said and if he did say this, this might not have been considered disrespectful and could have been taken out of context as that society whyen he lived is so ancient and foriegn to ours, anf you are reaching this is a weak arguement to disagree with the christians on, I am no christian but fail to see the logic of your question it lacks strength and proves nothing. Jesus was a man and he cursed too! what is the moral behind that? dont know but it would have been a better question
2006-12-24 02:21:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
lol this happened like what 2000 years ago? Just because we think that calling a female "woman" is disrespectful does not mean that calling a female a woman back then wasnt. I mean.. she was a woman wasnt she?
besides you have to remember that the bible has been re-traslated uncountable times, by man, who always put down women, those words he spoke could not even crossed his mouth- no one "really" knows. its the moral of the story we are supposed to be paying attention to.
2006-12-24 02:20:54 · answer #4 · answered by allaboutme_333 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
She was a woman....and even in agonizing pain he spoke the truth! Moral of the story..tell the truth no matter what. I know that what I've said is simplistic so Ill tell you what I really mean.
When Jesus was on the cross he said to his mother,woman behold thy son..he said to his brother..behold thy mother...He was telling them that he was no longer the person that they beheld. he was saying that I am about to ascend as a Holy being,not the fleshly son and brother that you know. Therefore woman (human) behold your human son. Brother (human) behold your human mother.
2006-12-24 02:30:40 · answer #5 · answered by Adrienne C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're looking into the technicalities of a translation of a translation of a translation too much. Plus Jesus' mother is a women, right?
2006-12-24 02:21:25 · answer #6 · answered by Roman Soldier 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First, that was just how people talked back then, for example, sometimes if some one wants to borrow something from you, they ask if they can steal it for a second, their not actualy stealing it. Secondly, you must really hate christians to phrase your question that way, and for that I must honestly say that I pity you.
-Yay!! Christianity!!
2006-12-24 13:38:37 · answer #7 · answered by Matt 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Don't forget that the Bible was written by dummies who thought that the Earth was flat.
2006-12-24 02:22:18 · answer #8 · answered by The professor 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was perfect, and so he treated everyone perfectly how they were supposed to be treated.
Mary gave birth to him, why would he disrespect her?
2006-12-24 02:23:00 · answer #9 · answered by Coral s 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
first off he dont claim he is God... we claim he was the son of God... a repreasentitive of God...he isent God.... and i dont remember him saying Women... differnt bibles say differnt things... it could have been My dear mother.... or somthing
2006-12-24 02:18:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋