Is saying Jesus' name in vain like saying God's name in vain?
2006-12-23 16:18:29 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
yes and yes
2006-12-23 16:20:10 · answer #1 · answered by its me 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Saying Jesus's name in vain is not that same, and in truth neither is saying 'God'. While popular conception is that saying "Oh my God" or whatnot is using his name in vain, God is merely a title.
The true name of God was kept deep within ancient Hebrew linguistics. A (possibly lesser) form of this is 'Jehova' which aught not to be used vainly, rather only in teaching, worship and reverent ways.
Both Christ and God are called 'the Lord' merely as a translation usually. For instance from Genesis chapter 1 - 15, the words 'the Lord' pop up over 60 times but were all the word 'Yehova' (said Jehova now) in Hewbrew.
The old ways knew of many names for God, some more sacred than others. This has been lost over the years and just recently began resurfacing. Check out eSword.net to do more research or contact me for more info if you'ld like.
2006-12-24 00:37:46 · answer #2 · answered by Garet Claborn 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both God (the Father) and Jesus are called "the Lord". (See John 13:13, Matthew 8:2, Matthew 14:30, Romans 1:3, Romans 4:24, Philippians 2:11, to list just a few referring to Jesus). Since Jesus IS God, the use of his name in vain is the taking of God's name in vain.
2006-12-24 00:19:58 · answer #3 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Yes, saying both is in vain, yes they are both God and really at the heart of the matter, the same entity, Just manifested differently. Example: God the Father is an invisible spirit that fills all space and time, now he wanted a family so he manifested the heavenly kingdom and manifested himself on the throne as Christ. And it is by the invisible holy spirit in which it is all held together, its Big, but this is how the God head is structured, So he came as a man to tell us in a language we could understand as a man, and then resurrected to the heavenly realm.
2006-12-24 00:24:17 · answer #4 · answered by bungyow 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That is a good question thank you for asking an actually question instead of an arguement. Open up to the book of John and go to chapter 14 and look at verse 6. "Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto to the father, but by me." John 14:6. Read down to verse 9, in there he is basically telling Phillip that he is the father from John 14:6 to John 14:9, Go in Christ
2006-12-24 00:32:05 · answer #5 · answered by gook_mother 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. They are one in the same, so they are both called Lord and you can't say any of the three names in vain. "God" "Jesus" or "Lord".
2006-12-24 00:20:40 · answer #6 · answered by bashnick 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the Bible, God the Father and Jesus are both called The Lord.
I personally think we should not take Jesus' name in vain.
Cordially,
John
http://www.GodSci.org
2006-12-24 00:20:32 · answer #7 · answered by John 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes the rule applies to both the Father and the Son. And also the Holy Spirit. And taking God's name carries a lot of weight.
http://www.handlethetruth.net
2006-12-24 00:20:14 · answer #8 · answered by truth_handl3r 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Most definately. Jesus is Our Lord and Savior. God, Almighty Creator is Lord of Lords.
2006-12-24 00:24:47 · answer #9 · answered by rezany 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus Christ...The King of Kings and Lord of Lords!
No messenger there....Just GOD Himself!
PEACE!!!
2006-12-24 00:25:09 · answer #10 · answered by David H 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Jesus is Lord!
2006-12-24 00:20:21 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋