Where in the Bible does it say that man has a free will?

Question

...I am kind of puzzled about this - where in the Bible does it say that man has a free will? I submit the fall affected our wills, also.
In Ephesians 2, we are told that we are "dead in trespasses and sins"; spiritual corpses, if you will, and helpless.
...In Romans 3, it says: "There is none righteous, no not one; there is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God."
...The Old Testament says that "every imagination of mankind was only evil continually."
....We are like Lazarus, whom Jesus raised from the dead; he was dead and had to be called and rescued by Jesus.
...Please give your views along with definite chapter/verse in Scripture.

Answer 1

It doesn't. Paul said that each and every one is predesitined to either Heaven or Hell. That doesn't sound like free will.

Answer 2

I don't need to give my views along with definite chapters/verses in Scripture, because you're absolutely right, and I would have used the same verses you did, although there are plenty more to prove this position. The fall of Adam has most definitely affected our wills, and this is reflected in a variety of Reformed and Presbyterian doctrinal statements and catechisms. I have yet to find anyone that can explain to me how "dead in trespasses and sins" can possibly mean "partially dead". I've never seen anyone partially dead, or even mostly dead, and I think those terms would have been avoided if they weren't meant to be taken at face value. Romans 3 couldn't be any more self-explanatory, and it takes a significant amount of word-twisting to bring any of these verses around to an ability to "accept" God's grace. Given by God, yes. Received by man, yes. Claimed or taken by man, no! God is the author and finisher of our salvation. Saying that we have the ability to make God Himself subject to our own will is saying that we can save ourselves, isn't it? At best this makes an acceptance prayer an Arminian's first error since he does not earnestly pray to God without receiving faith in the first place.

Answer 3

I really don't like resorting to mere logic, but, wouldn't God be unjust to require us to choose Jesus Christ as our Savior by our act of will, if we were not capable of that? To say that the fall of man rendered us unable to choose good or evil is not scriptural, is therefore incorrect. It is true that our decisions are affected by the pull of the desires in our sinful flesh, but Romans chapter 6 indicates that in Christ we are dead to sin and that we no longer have to respond to it's dictates.

Answer 4

The story of "the fall" in Genesis illustrates the fact that God allows us to make our own choices, and to live (or die) with the consequences.

The same concept is reinforced throughout the scriptures.

"Free will" is a term, much like "Trinity" that doesn't appear in the Bible as such, but is valid none the less.

The Catechism of the Catholic Church explains it:

"Jesus handed over according to the definite plan of God"

599 Jesus' violent death was not the result of chance in an unfortunate coincidence of circumstances, but is part of the mystery of God's plan, as St. Peter explains to the Jews of Jerusalem in his first sermon on Pentecost: "This Jesus [was] delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God."393 This Biblical language does not mean that those who handed him over were merely passive players in a scenario written in advance by God.394

600 To God, all moments of time are present in their immediacy. When therefore he establishes his eternal plan of "predestination", he includes in it each person's free response to his grace: "In this city, in fact, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, to do whatever your hand and your plan had predestined to take place."395 For the sake of accomplishing his plan of salvation, God permitted the acts that flowed from their blindness.396

Answer 5

COMMON SENSE

One thing God cannot do is create true love, and that's what He wants is our love.

God realized He could not create true love or forced it upon a being, but true love would only manifest in sons of freewill. The wisdom of God also knew it would be necessary to govern sons of freewill by laws that are fair and righteous, to hold them accountable.

Ever hear of "freewill offering", it's in many places in the Old Testament. Well now, our freewill offering is our love.

>>>>>>><<<<<<<<<

Answer 6

Among the many types of OFFERINGS and sacrifices made to God --and in addition to the established Feasts and Festivals during the Old Testament-- such as 'meat' offerings, 'burnt' offerings, 'drink' offerings, 'peace' offerings, etc., the Believers also WILLINGLY made FREEWILL OFFERINGS besides all their vows made to God.

You'll find many passages in the Books of Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy and it is also mentioned by the Prophets Samuel, Ezra, and David.

Here's one of them: "That which is gone out of thy lips thou shalt keep and perform; even a freewill offering, according as thou hast vowed unto the LORD thy God, which thou hast promised with thy mouth..." --Deuteronomy 23:23.

Peace be with you.

Answer 7

It is impossible for us to fully understand the relationship between God’s sovereignty and man’s free will. Only God truly knows how those two work together.

Try Psalm 16:11; Thou wilt show me the path of life: in thy presence is fulness of joy; at thy right hand there are pleasures for evermore.

Other words or modern day translation; You let me know the path of life; in our presence is the fullness of joy; in Your right hand, eternal bliss"

Man was therefore created as a creature capable to some degree of understanding, and ultimately experiencing the greatest possible good, which is God Himself. It can therefore be said that God's purpose in creation was to allow Himself to be experienced by a creature far removed and much lower than Himself. It is thus taught that God created the universe because "He desired an abode in the lower world."

God caused man to have a psychological makeup with which he would experience the greatest possible pleasure in doing something that he knew to be good and beneficial. This pleasure is enhanced according to the importance of the authority declaring that a given action is good. Since God Himself is the highest possible authority, there can be no greater pleasure in performing a job well done than in knowingly obeying the expressed will of God.

In order to enjoy the pleasure of such accomplishment, it is imperative that man know that his accomplishment is a matter of his own free choice, and not the result of his nature of compulsion. So that all choices of action be up to the individual, God gave man absolute free will.

Free will is required by God's justice. Otherwise, man would not be given or denied good for actions over which he had no control. Beyond this, however, it is also required by the very purpose for which He created the universe, namely, that He give man good through the pleasures of his own accomplishment.

Since the ultimate good is God Himself, the greatest possible good that He can bestow is Himself. There is no greater good than achieving a degree of unity with God, the Creator of all good. Since God desires to give man the greatest good possible, He gave him the ability to resemble Himself.

This is another reason that God gave man free will. Just as God acts as a free Being, so does man. Just as God acts without prior restraint, so does man. Just as God can do good as a matter of His own free choice, so can man. Man is therefore spoken of as being created in the image of God.

In order for man to have true free choice, he must not only have inner freedom of will, but also an environment in which a choice between obedience and disobedience exists.

So that such a choice can exist, God created a world where both good and evil can freely operate. He thus said, "I form light and create darkness; I make peace and create evil; I am God. I do all these things" (Isaiah 45:7).

Answer 8

It doesn't say it, I think it's just logical that forced belief would be the antithesis of faith when the entire premise of salvation is faith in Jesus as the Savior of anyone willing to understand and accept it.

Answer 9

It doesnt, but it shows that man does have free will..

2Co 9:7 Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth a cheerful giver.

He Purposeth it in his heart... he operatied in his own free will...

Gal 4:4 But when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,

made under the law — “made to be under the law.” Not merely as Grotius and Alford explain, “Born subject to the law as a Jew.” But “made” by His Father’s appointment, and His own free will, “subject to the law,” to keep it all, ceremonial and moral, perfectly for us, as the Representative Man, and to suffer and exhaust the full penalty of our whole race’s violation of it. (1)

Phm 1:14 But without thy mind would I do nothing; that thy benefit should not be as it were of necessity, but willingly.

without thy mind — that is, consent. should not be as — “should not appear as a matter of necessity, but of free will.” (2)

Hopes this gets you at least started.

Answer 10

I think it is implied everytime a choice is given.

John 3:16 is the obvious first one that comes to mind. "For God so loved the world that whosever believes in Him will have everlasting life."

Romans 10:9,10 (I think) If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleans us from all unrighteousness."

Stuff like that.