i dont know. if they are not inferior genetically then why did they get colonised for so long? im not saying they are but the facts say they are,
2006-12-23 13:28:34 · 5 answers · asked by hello 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
WTF are you talking about? Spain? When did spain get colonized....
the only thing I can even barely relate to what your saying is the moors invasion of the southern part of the iberian peninsula. And Britain didn't get 'colonized' by the moors because it is seperated by miles and miles of land and water and not a tine bit of water that could be paddled across on a piece of wood, as Spain is from africa...
also because Britain was The norman ruled Kingdom of England back then...
I have a feeling i'm missing the point tho, but if that's what your talking about it's because The kingdom of Castille, Aragon, the rest of spain and Portugal wouldn't unite until the pope interfered and ordered the Reconquista of spain!!!
For Moriah: The Saxons put up a pretty good fight though. They had to fight of the Danes and the Normans it's not really 'sad' they got invaded. Poor Harold...
2006-12-23 13:32:06 · answer #1 · answered by Poo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm no lover of the Spanish either, and they were colonized by the North Africans, but if that's what you're talking about, the British were too by the Normans, or the French.
That's pretty embarrassing.
We're all equal, sir.
2006-12-23 21:34:27 · answer #2 · answered by . 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I wonder who's facts,they are not inferior.
2006-12-23 21:35:43 · answer #3 · answered by gwhiz1052 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
oh man, get ready for the firestorm...
2006-12-23 21:32:56 · answer #4 · answered by Da Vinci Code Revolution 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wow... where to begin...? Hmm...
Hello??
Peace be with you.
2006-12-23 21:32:55 · answer #5 · answered by Arf Bee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋