Is it Israel or the one you call Jesus?
2006-12-23 08:25:34 · 10 answers · asked by Mijoecha 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It is Israel.
The verses do not fit with Jesus at all.
2006-12-23 12:45:54 · answer #1 · answered by BMCR 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Thinking Isaiah 53 refers to Jesus is a common mistake. Chapters 40-55 of Isaiah were written by Second Isaiah i.e. after southern kingdom was destroyed in 586 BCE and the surviving Israelites had been taken into captivity. Like all the prophets, he was writing for his own time, not future generations. He was trying to explain to the nation of Israel why they suffered and why they should yet have hope. Here's why that interpretation is correct: 1) There is no use of the word “messiah” in the passage at all. Moreover, the Jewish idea of a messiah was not someone who suffered, but rather a mighty leader. Therefore it is clear that the “servant” who has suffered is not meant to be any type of messiah. 2) The servant is crushed, the opposite of stretched or crucified, which is what happened to Jesus. 3) Most fundamentally, the author specifically identifies the “servant” as the nation of Israel in 41:8 and 49:3. The sufferings of the servant are said to be in the past, not in the future. This is consistent with the timing of the writing, i.e. after the destruction of the nation of Israel has occurred and the captivity is underway. The suffering of Jesus, by contrast, occurs in the future.
2016-05-23 02:19:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Isaiah is a prophet who spoke a great deal about the messiah who would come to the Hebrew people. The suffering servant represents the messiah, Jesus.
2006-12-23 08:30:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would say it's Jesus.
Verses 4 and 5 say:
But He took our suffering on him and felt our pain for us. We saw his suffering and thought God was punishing him. But he was wounded for the wrong we did; he was crushed for the evil we did. The punishment, which made us well, was given to him, and we are healed because of his wounds.
The first sentence says that He took our suffering on him. This is a perfect explanation of what Jesus did for us.
"But he was wounded for the wrong we did." That is what Jesus did.
"The punishment, which made us well, was given to him, and we are healed because of his wounds." Exactly how it is.
So I think the answer is Jesus.
2006-12-23 08:52:18 · answer #4 · answered by Joshua 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Dear mijoecha,
Isaiah 5is speaking of the Lord Jesus Christ. "And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free."
2006-12-23 08:29:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was a prophecy concerning Jesus
2006-12-23 08:59:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus, Israel can't take away anybody's sins.
2006-12-23 08:28:26 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
ISAIAH WAS THE SUFFERING SERVANT,FELT SO ASHAMED BEFORE THE LORD OF HOST'S BEFORE THE WICKEDNESS IN THE PEOPLE BACK IN THAT DAY,THAT HE WENT THROUGH MOST OF HAS LIFE WEARING NO CLOTHS AND BARING HIS SHAME BEFORE ALL HIS PEOPLE AND GOD
2006-12-23 08:50:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
It's Jesus (The son of God)!
2006-12-23 08:29:57 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is me. I've decided that I am god. Feel free to begin praying when you feel the need.
2006-12-23 08:27:54 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋