since this question is always put to the Christians, let me ask it in reverse, unbelievers, where in the Bible does it condone emphatically, homosexual behaviour?
2006-12-22 13:29:04 · 17 answers · asked by lookn2cjc 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;
Romans chapter 1
2006-12-22 13:45:26 · update #1
6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
6:10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
1Corinthians chapter 6
2006-12-22 13:49:52 · update #2
Gazoo,
David and Johnathan had an enormous love for each other, but not in the way you imply. You are taking great liberty with the Scriptures.
2006-12-22 13:58:20 · update #3
it doesn't. it strictly forbids any type of immoral behavior
2006-12-22 13:31:27 · answer #1 · answered by angeleyes3535 2 · 3⤊ 3⤋
While it says references to the behavior, it never flat out condemns it.
It is allways put with reference to crime, and not just Guy + Guy = Hell.
Another thing to note is how it specifically condemns guys taking the role of a female at times, a reference not to same-sex intolerance, but rather the over all mysogony and the shame of being a women.
Women had no rights back then, and even the Bible said that they shouldn't speak in churches, and were terribly unclean during "That Time Of The Month".
It wasn't gay-sex that bothered them, just the idea of men stooping so low to the "womens" level.
2006-12-22 13:34:43 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
The passage that I have seen used to explain that God created some people to be homosexual is the scripture on "eunuchs" that some are made by God and some by man.
This does not "justify" anything, but explains that some people are created that way by God's design, and are not intended to be married and have children in this life.
In general, I believe it is more fair to distinguish "adulterous" relationships, which does not discriminate between heterosexual or homosexual, but sanctifies sexual relations between committed partners who are spiritually married as soul-mates.
2006-12-22 13:38:50 · answer #3 · answered by emilynghiem 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It really appears David had a lover named Jonathan. It doesn't explicitly say, but it has their souls bound, says they love each other (more than women it says), and even has them kissing. I take it they were. I'm hard pressed for how else you could take it.
1 Samuel 18
1When David had finished speaking to Saul, the soul of Jonathan was bound to the soul of David, and Jonathan loved him as his own soul.2Saul took him [David] that day and would not let him return to his father's house.3Then Jonathan made a covenant with David, because he loved him as his own soul. 4Jonathan stripped himself of the robe that he was wearing, and gave it to David, and his armor, and even his sword and his bow and his belt.
1 Samuel 20
17Thus Jonathan made a covenant with the house of David, saying, "May the LORD seek out the enemies of David." 18 Jonathan made David swear again by his love for him; for he loved him as he loved his own life. ... 41As soon as the boy had gone, David rose from beside the stone heap and prostrated himself with his face to the ground. He bowed three times, and they kissed each other, and wept with each other; David wept the more.
2 Samuel 1
25How the mighty have fallen in the midst of the battle! Jonathan lies slain upon your high places.26I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; greatly beloved were you to me; your love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women.
2006-12-22 13:53:34 · answer #4 · answered by Alex 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Asking non-believers to use the bible as a guide is like asking me to point out "Separation of Church and State" in Saudi Arabia's constitution.
I don't live by those rules, don't throw them at me.
2006-12-22 13:31:45 · answer #5 · answered by ThatGuy 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
I agree with the Dude 100%
2006-12-22 13:31:13 · answer #6 · answered by Atlas 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
In the book of RAMROD 21:12, thweety
2006-12-22 13:31:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
I dont think the non believers are looking in the bible for answers.
2006-12-22 13:30:47 · answer #8 · answered by gumby and pokey 3 · 3⤊ 3⤋
Maybe the reason it doesn't is why non-believers don't believe in the Bible?
2006-12-22 13:31:01 · answer #9 · answered by some teenager 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It condemns it, no doubt, it says it plain and clear, two men shall not lay down with each other....
can't get clearer than that...
2006-12-22 13:30:37 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 2⤋
Why should we care about it? Who made the claim that it does?
2006-12-22 13:32:38 · answer #11 · answered by eldad9 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋