English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

In re to this question -

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AqdQNNZ7gj0jXmXBLz8_L3jsy6IX?qid=20061222141745AAYndxd

About this verse -

If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives." Deuteronomy 22:28-29 NIV

A few answers were the tired explanation that "we are under a new covenant," or "that was a different culture and time," and so forth.

So, did women back then have different feelings? Did they hurt less? Did they feel less? Were they immune to emotional trauma?

2006-12-22 09:34:05 · 32 answers · asked by Snark 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Jesus dying is no explanation unless he died for God's sins too.

2006-12-22 09:38:13 · update #1

32 answers

Such a good question music girl. I was going to silently cheer you on until I read these people missing the point and the sick thing is they're mostly females.

THE POINT IS..... the woman who was raped!! What happens to HER is that she has to be married to the rapist her whole life.

Are you TRYING not to get this point people!? I think my heads going to spin off. Time for a latte!

2006-12-22 09:42:07 · answer #1 · answered by Laptop Jesus 4 · 1 3

I think people fail to understand how radical this law is. One can look at it as "throwing money" at the problem. Another can see as injustice to the woman. Yet, they are only looking at the letter of the law and not its spirit. This is not the first time someone has asked this question about Deuteronomy 22:28-29 and I will give the same answer as before.
Although there is financial recompense and the victim must live with their rapist, there is something else that must go on within the home. They are to live as husband and wife and treat each other as such. This is so the victim can find healing in being properly loved by her offender. And in living as a husband is supposed to, the rapist can be reformed. In the end it is the hope that the couple will learn to either ask forgiveness or offer forgiveness. And so, two lives are healed and justice beyond the paltry price of fifty sheckles is dispensed. And so, this law is more radical than you know.
Most would say this is impossible to do, but since it was a law in a culture, then there must have been those that did fulfill it! And so, it is not impossible. It is a shame that today, in our culture, we divorce for much lesser and trivial injustices than this.
However, do not include the abused wife in the above critique. That is a different set of circumstances altogether. I am talking about those who divorce for the supposed "irreconcilible differences" when all they have to do is be humble and speak WITH one another and not AT each other.
Still, after explaining the spirit of the law I will answer the last of your question. Women then did not feel or suffer differently than the women of today. Yet, women and men are more than their hurts and feelings and that is what the law in Deuteronomy is trying to say and encourage.
May the Lord bless you and keep you. May He let the light of His face shine upon you.

God's and your beast of burden
Fr. john

2006-12-22 10:02:38 · answer #2 · answered by som 3 · 0 1

Deuteronomy Chapter 22 gives various domestic laws. For instance, it dealt with the situation of a man who no longer loved his wife and claimed that she had not been a virgin. It gave God’s laws about adultery and rape. Then we read verses 28 and 29:

“In case a man finds a girl, a virgin who has not been engaged, and he actually seizes her and lies down with her, and they have been found out, the man who lay down with her must also give the girl’s father fifty silver shekels, and she will become his wife due to the fact that he humiliated her. He will not be allowed to divorce her all his days.”

Notice the phrase there: “and they are discovered.” Rather than forced rape, this would be a case of pressured seduction and/or fornication. If an unscrupulous man felt at liberty to have sex relations with a virgin, she would be the principal loser. Besides the possibility that she might have an illegitimate child, her value as a bride was diminished since many Israelite men would not want to marry her once she was no longer a virgin. What, though, would discourage a man from taking liberties with a virgin? God’s “holy and righteous and good” Law would. Compare Romans 7:12. Therefore, this served as a means of protection for the woman and a means of discouragement for unscrupulous men. For what man just looking for a good time seduces a woman for sex knowing that if found out, he will never be allowed to divorce her? That would be the end of his seduction days.

Rather than fault God for what may seem to some to be cruel, we might instead look a little deeper and acknowledge that God recognizes the selfish behavior of men who, even thousands of years ago, were adept at being just as despicable as they are now.


Hannah

2006-12-22 09:52:45 · answer #3 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 2 1

God does not sin.
Man sins.
There are at least two instances of rape described in the Old Testament. Dinah, the daughter of Jacob was raped by Shecham, and Tamara, King David's daughter was raped by her half-brother Amnon.

The indignation suffered by these two women and the families in general caused the brother(s) of these ladies to kill the offenders.
One took place prior to the Law being given, and one after.

The "eye for an eye" rule in scriptures was put in place to make sure that the punishment fit the crime. In justice and fairness, the Law attempted to bring a balance between killing the offender and ignoring the offense.

No price can be put on the emotional and possible physical pain a woman victim must endure. Under the New Covenant, two things are required:
1) Believers are to obey the law of the lands in which they live, and 2) Forgivenness must be part of the resolution.

God's laws and man's laws often conflict. But women are the same today as they were back then.

Disrespect; shame; pleas ignored; rejection.

2006-12-22 09:59:00 · answer #4 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 1 1

If you will look at the verses before that, beginning with verse 13, these are laws concerning sexual conduct among the children of Israel. See that in many instances men and women were to be stoned to death for sexual misconduct. If that virgin that you ask about were betrothed to another man, the man that forced her would have been stoned to death. It was actually an act of mercy that allowed the man to pay the girl's father and marry her, and forbid him to put her away for all of his days. By the way, God never sinned. You speak as a fool, unlearned and unrighteous.

2006-12-22 09:51:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

If you back up to verse 22 you will see that those caught in adultery were put to death!
Of course we are not under the Old Testament anymore since Christ nailed it to the cross. When Christ ( the testator of the new Testament) rose from the grave and the Church of Christ was established in Acts 2 the Old Laws were done away with.
If you remember in the N.T. when the woman and man were caught in adultery they (the accusers) only wanted to punish her...what Did Jesus DO?????
(after hearing their accusations), bent down and wrote on the ground with his finger, as though he did not hear them, and the accusers continued asking to stone her According to the Law of Moses, Jesus stood up and said, " He that is without sin among you, let him cast the first stone at her." And again he stooped and wrote on the ground.
Now when the accusers heard this, being convicted in their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last; and Jesus left alone, and the woman standing in the midst.
When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman , where are those thine accusers: hath no man condemned thee?
She said, No man Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more. John 8: 1-11
In verse 12 Jesus says He is the Light of the world...
We are under the new testament today. Not the laws of Moses.

Christian in Pa.

2006-12-22 09:58:50 · answer #6 · answered by Penny Mae 7 · 0 1

The fifty pieces of silver was the price the law set forth, in the violation of her. And sense violation of any member of a family was showing dishonor the the father of the family, the fine was payed to the father.

Note the Bible says he "must marry" the girl. Failure to comply to this law, for him, was death by stoning. For he would have been in violation of "Thou" shalt not commit Adultery.

2006-12-22 10:01:44 · answer #7 · answered by n_007pen 4 · 1 1

They didn't count as much, you have to remember Abraham, the spreader of the Jewish religion as started the whole lie that women were evil because of eating the apple. Before that we were respected and revered in our own right for being the only ones who could bring forth new life.
Look at history, women have been persecuted the longest of anyone in the world. We were the last to vote, be allowed to have custody of our own children, and manage our own money. They only just now decided that women are made differently and should receive different medical treatment.
If it wasn't for Abraham, we wouldn't have been deemed so worthless for so long!

2006-12-22 09:41:38 · answer #8 · answered by gypsyiiiis 4 · 0 2

Listen ask the women of today in the middle eastern countries how they are treated. Not to well, they are possession. This is not God ordained, it is what man has done. To the women in the days of Deuteronomy it would have been more shameful to have been raped and left unmarried. You are talking about a custom that is so far removed from where we are in this country and space in time. You can not compare.

2006-12-22 09:40:50 · answer #9 · answered by angel 7 · 1 2

Your taking the word rape and using it as in these days , Rape in Hebrew meant a woman having sex outside of marriage ,Back then it was not permitted ,So when it happened then The man was to pay for the Violation

2006-12-22 09:42:19 · answer #10 · answered by Terry S 5 · 3 1

umm.. Okay how's this...

OMG are you serious? Does the bible really say that? Is there someone here who can offer me spiritual guidance or counseling? This has really made me think twice about listening to or reading the word of God. I am so happy you post twice this question I have seen the light!!! I guess I needed to specify this is sarcasm...

Come on man don't press the issue we saw we read we answered just because we didn't say what you wanted us to don't be upset...

2006-12-22 09:54:46 · answer #11 · answered by Alicia S 4 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers