for instance: Jacob deceives (lying, commandment 9) his father Isaac (honor thy father and mother, commandment 5) in order to steal (commandment 8) the birthright from his brother Esau. he then flees into the wilderness where god tells him he is good and holy.
there is another reference in the book of mormon 1st Nephi 4:5-27 where Nephi is instructed "by god" to kill Laban, the king while he is passed out drunk, so that he may steal the plates of brass on which the five books of Moses are engraved.
now, if god is the same yesterday, today, and forever, and god set forth commandments saying "thou shalt not do this" with a period at the end, how come so many "prophets" are instructed to break his commandments, proving that god is in fact NOT the same, and that he DOES change his mind.
in other words, if god is omnipotent, could he have not set forth another avenue with which Jacob could have obtained his fathers blessing, or that Nephi could have obtained the brass plates?
2006-12-21
11:07:41
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8 answers
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asked by
Mastronaut
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
gratvol, good answer... but if "god is the same yesterday, today, and forever" then would god not want his flock to follow his commandments, even though he has not set them forth yet?
2006-12-21
11:34:07 ·
update #1