Einstein showed that all frames of reference are equally valid, so the earth can be considered as a frame of reference independent of the rest of the universe. Given that the earth is merely rotating and NOT accelerating, why are winds or missiles or anything above the earth's surface affected by the earth's rotation?
Does it have to do with conservation of angular momentum, as a body travels from large spinning circles toward smaller spinning circles (lines of latitude)? Even then, it still seems contradictory to relativity theory in that the earth doesn't "know" that it is rotating, nor does anything on it.
I guess my question is Why is a rotating frame of reference discernable from a non-rotating one? It's only rotating relative to the rest of the universe; does the universe's inertia matter? Is this related to gyroscopic precession?
I've read the Wikipedia entry and seen the movies of balls on merry-go-rounds. What am I not getting?
This has been bugging me for 15 years
2006-12-20
22:58:43
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6 answers
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asked by
warm106fm
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics