Is it possible to have no prejudice(s)?

0 ⤊

Is it possible to have no prejudice(s)?

2006-12-20 07:57:29 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture

5 answers

No it isn't. Just look at the word pre (before) judge (criticize). It is a part of human nature to draw upon an assumption, perhaps as a defense mechanism. Such is the need when approaching the unknown.

2006-12-20 08:30:52 · answer #1 · answered by germaine_87313 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

Nope, not possible. U know why..........because we're all imperfect so no one will ever stop judging other people.

2006-12-20 16:07:22 · answer #2 · answered by oohLa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋

HM, possible, but not probable.

2006-12-20 16:00:06 · answer #3 · answered by Arely 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋

possibly but not probably

2006-12-20 15:59:43 · answer #4 · answered by idahomike2 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋

Not in this lifetime!

2006-12-20 15:59:37 · answer #5 · answered by -4db 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋