Definitely not. In Spain and Portugal's madel of colonization the second wave was the religious one, the first being initial trade considerations (and plunder!) with the final one being the military's arrival to maintain colonial order. Religion was an important justification and fund-raising lever for what the original expeditions intended to do: Claim land for the King, and converts for the Pope, a worldly, wealthy prince himself.
The surrounding countries (Southern Thailand, Peninsula Malaysia, Singapore, North Borneo and Brunei, and North and Central Indonesia) mainly consisted of Aboriginal (native) tribes in the jungle interior, who practised traditional animist religions, and small, peaceful Muslim fishing villages strung along the coast at the start of the 20th Century. This is how the Philippines would have almost certainly been too without the early arrival and 'conversions' of the Spanish.
2006-12-19 13:50:25
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answer #1
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answered by Bart S 7
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Historically, prob not. The Catholic Religion was forced upon them. This is what started the was between Musilums and Christians in the southern Islands. They were treated badly when they refused to convert.
2006-12-19 21:41:14
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answer #2
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answered by djm749 6
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Nope. But that's 700 years after the fact.
2006-12-19 21:43:41
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answer #3
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answered by flip4449 5
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It's actually spelled Catholic not katolic . p.s. You don't ask those kind of questions on this board find the history board and ask again.
2006-12-19 21:42:40
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answer #4
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answered by Curious 2
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Nope, and they wouldn't be getting persecuted for it either.
2006-12-19 21:38:42
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answer #5
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answered by Atlas 6
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not so sure though but one thing i am sure of is that its Catholic not katolic
2006-12-19 21:45:17
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answer #6
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answered by super_sexyako 2
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most likely.
2006-12-19 21:38:59
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Shure..why not...then again..maybe not.
2006-12-19 21:38:24
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answer #8
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answered by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7
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