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Luke 2

1In those days Caesar Augustus issued a decree that a census should be taken of the entire Roman world. 2(This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria.) 3And everyone went to his own town to register.

4So Joseph also went up from the town of Nazareth in Galilee to Judea, to Bethlehem the town of David, because he belonged to the house and line of David. 5He went there to register with Mary, who was pledged to be married to him and was expecting a child. 6While they were there, the time came for the baby to be born, 7and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son. She wrapped him in cloths and placed him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.

2006-12-19 05:48:50 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

10 answers

Why does she have to be a virgin, it's not like the holy ghost is going to catch something ?
Ow, wouldn't that hurt (extra) to give birth, if you still had you hymn intact ?

Not that I believe such a silly story, but it's that a little unfair to Joesph, he gets married and doesn't get to pop her cherry.

2006-12-19 05:53:42 · answer #1 · answered by lilith 7 · 0 0

i've got in no way seen an unwed parent get indignant at that, care to link an occasion? A church is a private company, no longer a public one, so this is as discriminatory because it needs whilst it includes rituals, i think of. Makes me contemplate whether there are like, racist church homes who do no longer baptize black people or some thing.

2016-12-11 12:18:31 · answer #2 · answered by deibert 4 · 0 0

Because if Joseph and Mary conceived a child, then she would have borne the "Son of Joseph." Since "Son of Joseph" was not really the plan God had for Jesus' human nature, I should think it fairly evident why he intended Jesus to be conceived of the Holy Ghost....

2006-12-19 05:53:31 · answer #3 · answered by evolver 6 · 0 0

She was married. The Jewish right of marriage included a period of time called betrothal which is similar to our engagement period but stronger than our engagement. To break off an engagement, you just go your separate ways. To break up a Jewish betrothal required a divorce. Their marriage was not consummated until the end of the betrothal period.

2006-12-19 06:00:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think that it's because Mary was a virgin, which is a sign of pureness and innocence.

2006-12-19 05:51:30 · answer #5 · answered by Aimee 2 · 0 0

Because Jehovah digs young moms, just like me.

2006-12-19 05:52:26 · answer #6 · answered by The Man Comes Around 5 · 0 0

she was promised...in those days that was married without the consumation. she while she was still oure...and he knew john was too

2006-12-19 05:52:51 · answer #7 · answered by Robert K 5 · 0 0

HE WANTED TO HAVE A VIRGIN SOMEONE PURE TO HAVE HIS PURE SON, IF HE HADNT DONE THAT EVEN MORE PEOPLE WHO HAVE NOT BELIEVED THE PROFECY

2006-12-19 05:53:08 · answer #8 · answered by teresa o 1 · 0 0

to be a sign for the people of Israel

2006-12-19 05:50:49 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Because if the woman was married, she wouldn't be a virgin.

2006-12-19 05:50:28 · answer #10 · answered by jinenglish68 5 · 1 2

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