Why does God in genesis 1:26 say "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness..." instead of "Let us make man in my image, in my likeness..."
2006-12-18 18:39:58 · 13 answers · asked by julio f 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
According to Colossians 1:15, 16 the first creation of God was his son, whom we now know as Jesus Christ. Then, all other things were created through him and for him. Even the angels were all created before man was and no telling how many of them were present during this conversation.
2006-12-18 19:00:43 · answer #1 · answered by Sparkle1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a very difficult one to answer. But you have to understand the Trinity. God is God. He had a Son. His name is Jesus. Jesus died on the cross for our sins. He sent the Holy Spirit to Help Christians. Jesus is fully man and fully God. He is a triune being. So of course He would say We, and Us. There also some references to the old hebrew language. Where Genesis says in the begining, Elohim... ect. Elohim is a plural. people have debated for years about this. But if you understand the hebrew language you will understand that plurality sometimes is a way exhalting one higher than another. Elohim is also God or Judge. Making Him the great Judge, or a triune Judge. I know it is confusing, but I hope that helps.
2006-12-19 02:46:03 · answer #2 · answered by floyd 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
See John 1:1
2006-12-19 02:52:39 · answer #3 · answered by thematofylaks 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Father, the Son, and the Holy spirit. That makes three, our image.
2006-12-19 02:50:46 · answer #4 · answered by gord's360 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because God was talking the Elohim, which were us in spiritual bodies before the flesh world, The heavens and the invisible kingdom of light, were the angels and the lord dwell was allready created first, so all the souls or children including you and me were all ready there, (seated around his throne worshipping him)so he created this world in that image and then sent your soul into it. but it will return upon death! Or the secound coming of christ)
2006-12-19 02:45:17 · answer #5 · answered by bungyow 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe God was speaking of Himself and Jesus, I am not certain if the Holy Spirit was also in this reference. I believe it was an introduction to the Father and Son being one but separate in form.
2006-12-19 02:44:21 · answer #6 · answered by hiscinders 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Thoughout history, when royalty speaks, they speak in the tense of all as a proclamation speaking for all. So God making a declaration to the host of heaven, Let us make man, as in all are in agreement , the King of all has spoken.
2006-12-19 02:43:34 · answer #7 · answered by 1Truth 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is obviously another or others with him. If speaking of Jesus, it also helps to appreciate they are 2 distinct and different individuals, or he could be speaking to all of the angelic creatures as a whole.
2006-12-19 02:43:54 · answer #8 · answered by OatesATM 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is talking to the Father and the Holy Spirit.
2006-12-19 02:43:32 · answer #9 · answered by Sky_blue 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are many things in the bible that are confusing, and it is best to never question it. But when I read this I thought that he was talking about himself and the angels.
2006-12-19 02:43:03 · answer #10 · answered by Silvertones 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋