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If he really did this, then why do Muslims respect him?

This is not intended to be a smart*ss question, I just want to know if it's true.

2006-12-18 11:31:20 · 11 answers · asked by tim 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

you have to take into account the time frame people died of extreme old age at 50 to 60 years old and a female was allowed to marry as soon as she started her periods this was just the way the world used to be the hard life they had meant that most people died before 40 years and children died all the time

2006-12-18 11:38:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Can each and every person purely agree that faith is pretend. Now now hear. The morals are authentic the each and every person is genuine. different than God/Allah. in spite of the undeniable fact that it is not if the religion is genuine it particularly is the morals. maximum of them. yet we now ought to alter all of it by using fact it substitute into written previously any progressive civilization. the way I see it particularly is faith purely brings hate. If there substitute into no faith maximum persons will nonetheless stick to the lar and there'll be plenty much less racism. I mean how do you recognize Jesus substitute into the son of God or Muhammad knew or substitute into spoken to by using Allah. for this reason you need to administration your self be a solid guy or woman besides. There are no longer any regulations for being a solid guy or woman by using fact there are such fairly some variables that no person that wrote the Holy books ought to think of. for this reason Buddhism is so stable. No God purely a guy who needs you to be happy with your self. apart from Satanism. hear in case you certainly resaech it as a substitute of questioning. "Ooooh devil he's undesirable". verify accessible ideals and regulations. then you certainly understand. So because they do no longer look to be genuine stay your existence!

2016-10-18 11:18:23 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The main anti-Islamic criticisms come from hadiths that state Muhammad 'consummated' this marriage when Aisha was nine years old - indeed, the assumption that this hadith means Muhammad had sexual intercourse with Aisha when she was nine years old makes up the vast majority of Ali Sina's article titled 'The Child Bride of Muhammad' (the one thing that can be noticed about his article is that in his efforts to slur Muhammad's name, many sex-based accusations are made and many hadiths are automatically given sexual meanings when they actually have none). One such hadith is:

Sahih Bukhari Volume 7, Book 62, Number 64

Narrated 'Aisha:
That the Prophet married her when she was six years old and he consummated his marriage when she was nine years old, and then she remained with him for nine years (i.e., till his death).

After seeing this, it is very easy to assume that this meant they had sexual intercourse when she was nine. But does it really say that?

Muslim-Answers.org give us a clue in their article on this topic, as very helpfully, they include some key Arabic words in their presentation of this hadith:

'Aishah, may God be pleased with her, narrated that the Prophet was betrothed (zawaj) to her when she was six years old and he consummated (nikah) his marriage when she was nine years old, and then she remained with him for nine years. (Saheeh al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 64)

The question that arises here is "Does the word 'nikah' mean 'to have sex', or has any sexual connotations whatsoever?". The answer is no - nikah is simply a formal marriage ceremony, as explained in great detail at Zawaj.com.

Having acertained that the word 'nikah' does not have any sexual meaning, we have to ask why the word 'consummated' was used in this hadith? A quick look in any dictionary shows that it doesn't just have sexual connotation - indeed, it's sexual meaning is probably derived from a western innuendo regarding the first night of marriage - the sort of smutty innuendo that Dr Muhsin Khan (the translator of Sahih Al-Bukhari) would not have been aware of, or at least would not have intended. The other main definition of 'consummate' is a formal completion of a contract or agreement, and this fits in perfectly with the definition of 'nikah' - this was probably the reasoning behind the use of the word 'consummate' in the english translation of this hadith. Strictly speaking, this is a correct term for inclusion in this hadith, but it certainly wasn't the best one (for obvious reasons) and perhaps a word emphasising the formal completion of the marriage should have been used instead to avoid misinterpretation.

2006-12-18 11:38:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 7 3

'Aishah, may God be pleased with her, narrated that the Prophet was betrothed (zawaj) to her when she was six years old and he consummated (nikah) his marriage when she was nine years old, and then she remained with him for nine years. (Saheeh al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 62, Number 64)

There is a word in Arabic that correctly translates “marriage.” It is “zawag.” However, “Nikah, the (N) word,” which is more commonly used in translations of the Quran to mean marriage, carries entirely different implications. “Nikah” implies that the emphasis in the relationship between a man and his wife solely sexual.

Linguistically, “Nikah” means embracing or penetrating. When it is pronounced “Nokh” it refers to a woman’s vagina. It is mainly used in the context of “sexual intercourse.” When it was used in reference to marriage it is because sex is a necessity in marriage. Al Fassi said,”If someone says a certain man (N) a certain woman, it means he married her, and if he says a man (N) his wife, it means he has sexual intercourse with her.” The word can also be used metaphorically as with expressions: the rain (N) the ground, or, the sleep (N) the eyes, or, the seed (N) the soil, or, the pebble (N) the camel’s hoof. When it was used in the context of marriage it is because sexual intercourse is the purpose of marriage. It is necessary in marriage to “taste the honey” (an Islamic expression meaning literal intercourse). This is the how the word has generally been used in the Quran except in the verse that says, “Make trial of orphans until they reach the age of (N)” Sura 4: 6. In that instance it pertains to the age of puberty. The Shafia and Hanafi schools of jurisprudence assert that the word nikah when used as a fact conveys that sexual intercourse has occurred. And when used as a figure of speech it denotes marriage. The reason for this variance is because it is offensive to mention the word “intercourse,” so a metonymic word is used to substitute it

2006-12-18 11:36:07 · answer #4 · answered by Ray 2 · 0 2

Child brides have been common across the world for ages. But you raise an interesting, if perhaps inaccurate, question. This will require research on someone's part. I do remember, however, that Mohammed's wife was significantly older than he.

2006-12-18 11:37:06 · answer #5 · answered by TruBlevr 2 · 2 1

We respect him because he is a slave, messenger and prophet of god. Aisha grew up to be one of the most famous female scholars. She narrated plenty of hadiths. Dont forget that the prophet first wife khadija was in her 40's and he was 25 when they got married. All of his wives were widows or divorced apart from Aisha.
http://www.fatwa-online.com/worship/jihaad/jih004/index.htm
http://www.al-ibaanah.com/support.php?page=articles

2006-12-18 11:38:41 · answer #6 · answered by ! 5 · 2 2

According to Christian scholars Mary had Jesus when she was 12 and Joseph was in his 30s or 40s, where they both victims or neither?

I am aware that Mary had a virgin birth, but the point is that it was suitable for Mary to have Jesus at that age, an according to Christian scholars be married at that age.

The Prophet Muhammad had many enemies trying to discredit him in any way, why did not one of them mention his marriage to Aisha? please ponder this

2006-12-18 11:36:52 · answer #7 · answered by hello 1 · 5 3

Youu know, it would be nice if the people who asked the questions had some intelligence, education, and were not so darn stupid.

You married her at an early age (which was the custom then -and still is in some places) , but he did not take her to be his wife till she was older.

2006-12-18 11:39:45 · answer #8 · answered by Shossi 6 · 5 2

Girls used to get married at age of puberty. And that is what happened in this case. This has only become an issue today because even in America (1886) the legal age of marriage was only 9! I don't see you calling America's forefathers pedophiles?

2006-12-18 11:35:05 · answer #9 · answered by A fan 4 · 9 4

To hello: Mary was actually 16 when she had Jesus.

2006-12-18 11:39:22 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

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