What if (after a double blind clinical study), a placebo was found to be almost as effective as the drug being tested. Would it be medically ethical to release the placebo in presciption form?
Has it ever been done? (and why not)
2006-12-18 06:17:56 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
I think you all missed the part of my question that said, "a placebo was found to be almost as effective as the drug being tested"
2006-12-18 06:32:11 · update #1
No, we are obligated to be honest with patients.
Many years ago, I had a patient that was convinced that he had been irradiated by nuclear fallout and that was the source of all of his medical symptoms. In fact, the problem was purely psychiatric. I prescribed a placebo pill and put florescein in his eye to "test" for radiation. It didn't help the patient at all and gave me major misgivings. I will never try anything like that again.
2006-12-18 17:33:13 · answer #1 · answered by er.doctor 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you review the results of clinical trials, you will *often* find that placebo is almost as effective as the test drug. All that is needed for "efficacy" is to demonstrate that it is statistically better to some level of significance, not that it knocks placebo out of the ballpark. Remember that many illnesses wax and wane, or get better on their own; for these placebo might appear to be efficacious were it not for statistics.
In the US, EU, Japan, Australia, prescription drugs must be shown to be both safe *and* efficacious. Placebo does not meet the second criterion, by definition.
There are exceptions, however. Consider prescription contraceptives. Some will include a one-month cycle of pills so that a pill can be taken every day. This habit improves compliance. In some formulations, for several days during the cyclea placebo is used, since the hormones are not indicated for those days.
Here is an interesting article:
http://query.nytimes.com/gst/fullpage.html?res=9C01E6D71E38F93AA35752C0A9669C8B63&sec=health&pagewanted=print
2006-12-18 06:40:31 · answer #2 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anything that isn't indicated for the treatment of the condition might be called a placebo (save the real risk of adverse effects), so obviously there are uncounted placebos on the market.
More to the point, it's something of a fad lately to do "therapeutically equivalent" studies in which the manufacturers like to show their drug is no worse than the standard treatment. This relies on the Polyanna phenomenon to support the use of drugs that have little or no benefit. These studies work in those with limited knowledge of statistics but are somewhat emetogenic in those who catch on.
2006-12-18 15:35:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO, during the clinical trial for efficacy (completed after the safety clinical trial) the patients are divided into groups. One of which is the placebo group. The placebo, is not a treatment, but lack of treatment. For instance lets say fiber was being tested and added to water for patients in the treatment group. NO fiber would be added to the water in the placebo group. Water would not be marketed.There is something called the "placebo effect", it occurs alot with anti-depressant trials, patients in the placebo group have improvement not due to medication, the depressed patients mood can improve just because they are selected for the drug trial and receiving attention. If placebos were marketed there would be thousands of ineffective "waters" on the market
2006-12-18 06:27:20 · answer #4 · answered by yopusha 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What this would show is the drug had no effect. Therefore the drug would not be put on the market. The placebo effect is well know. If the patient thinks the medicine is going to work it usually does.
2006-12-18 07:43:41 · answer #5 · answered by Jabberwock 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not uncommon for a dr to prescribe a placebo, if they believe it will effect the change they wish in a patient. It can't be marketed to the medical community as anything besides a placebo, though.
2006-12-18 06:35:35 · answer #6 · answered by Radagast97 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are posting this identical factor over and over again. No one is making an attempt to cover some thing. They are frequently worn out of the identical historical factor at all times. As I have mentioned earlier than to this. These are evaluations no longer reality. Just seeing that they declare anything does no longer end up some thing. So stop with the a couple of posting.
2016-09-03 17:37:15 · answer #7 · answered by swindell 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be deceitful. Has it been done? Yes, for some, ethics decrease, as probability of acquiring money exists. Also consider, for instance, India's "fake prescription" business' effects on Uganda and the rest of the world.
2006-12-18 06:30:10 · answer #8 · answered by S. B. 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That would be dishonest, and it could cost someone to lose their life thinking that a placebo will help them, while they could be receiving real medical help.
2006-12-18 06:27:43 · answer #9 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋