Why did god do this if it violates one of 'gods' commandments? Why did he wipe out entire cities, kill all the men and rape the women and children?
2006-12-17 13:43:26 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
'Kill', 'Murder' what's the difference in this case. Killing a person for no good reason is murder, even if god told you to do that. Well if you kill someone because god told you to. Well people would think you're crazy
2006-12-17 14:07:36 · update #1
i'm pretty sure god wiping out the first born of every egyptian wasn't justifide. sounds like murder to me. so much for your perfect god who cannot sin.
2006-12-17 14:23:55 · answer #1 · answered by Shamus O'Larry 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The word for "kill" in the original Hebrew is "raw-tsakh'," which properly translated means to murder, to take a human life without just cause. There are numerous instances in the Bible where God commanded His prophets/servants to take the lives of evil men, and even their families and livestock. This is because God cannot stand the evil that men are capable of.
Moses did not rape any women. God forbids all manner of fornication.
2006-12-17 13:58:06 · answer #2 · answered by SnakeMaster 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First off, I don't believe God ever ordered Moses to kill anyone, could you quote chapter and verse on that please? Second, as previous writers have said, the commandment is to not murder, big difference.
Second, the law was set up to show man what the perfect standard was, what a man must do perfectly in order to inherit eternal life through works, of course, no one could do it.
Third, God is God, it is His world, His universe and we are His creation. Since all men are born into sin, have a sin nature and, without His intervention, will deny His existence and willfully violate His laws. Therefore, since man, on his own, violates God's holy standards, they are worthy of death, both physical and spiritual. If God takes any lives, He has the perfect right to do so since He is totally sovereign overall.
2006-12-17 13:55:38 · answer #3 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No violation here. The commandment in the original language is "Thou shalt not Murder".
As for the destruction of the city, it was because they had given themselves wholly over to idolatry and evil. Had the particular cities in question been allowed to continue, the imminent destruction of Israel and the world would have taken place ages ago.
You need to understand that these people were into things you cannot imagine.
They were making babies and sacrificing them alive and well into pits of fire. That's why they would bang drums so that they would not hear the screams of the burning infants.
God is smarter than us.
I Cr 13;8a
12-17-6
2006-12-17 13:53:58 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Christian Jehova seems to suffer from severly debilitating memory lapses.
Or maybe he's just one of those guys who says **** he doesn't really mean. I forgot what that's called.
What I've heard about this from other people is that it's just a bad traslation, so I guess my question is how much else of it is subject to translation issues? I mean, if 'Thou Shalt Not Kill' isn't right, what of the rest of it should we be taking with a grain of salt?
And.. if 'Killing' is justified and 'Murder' is not, how is 'Killing' entire cities not 'Murder'? Is genocide not wrong? Or is it just when God does it or orders it to be done?
If I say God commanded me to send all the Christians to him, would that be justified?
The Christian argument is that the Bible shouldn't be be interperted as the literal truth.
I couldn't agree more.
*edit* To answer Brother Michael's question:
"And it came to pass in those days, when Moses was grown, that he went out unto his brethren, and looked on their burdens: and he spied an Egyptian smiting an Hebrew, one of his brethren.
And he looked this way and that way, and when he saw that there was no man, he slew the Egyptian, and hid him in the sand." - Exodus 2:11-12, New Testimate
2006-12-17 13:47:09 · answer #5 · answered by socialdeevolution 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Those who were killed, were simply bearing witness to the wrath of God brought about by the Israelites. Simply put Moses was just God's tool. Since Jesus, His wrath has been reserved for the day of the LORD and the end of the world.
By far one of the coolest verses of the Bible.
Numbers 31
[Moses said] 17 Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man
2006-12-17 13:52:38 · answer #6 · answered by phoenix_slayer2001uk 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
specific, Moses killed some situations. even nonetheless, the unique commandment reported "Thou Shalt no longer homicide." observe the version? To homicide is to take the life of a human by using fact of non-public and egocentric reasons. (E.G. Cain murdered in a position.) To kill is to take the life of yet another to shop your individual life or the life of a 0.33 social gathering. (Moses killed a guy to shop a woman from being raped and overwhelmed.) sometime human beings translate one one onto something that it became no longer meant to be and then it of direction differences the completed meaning of a fact.
2016-10-15 03:45:35 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends upon which translation you have, but the commandment was to not murder, which is quite different then kill.
2006-12-17 13:45:41 · answer #8 · answered by Turnhog 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The word translated "kill" is more accurately rendered "murder." Killing is sometimes justified. Murder, by definition, is never justified.
2006-12-17 13:47:01 · answer #9 · answered by The First Dragon 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Commandment is Thou shall not muder. Killing is different. One is done as a act of volence, one is a act of protection.
2006-12-17 13:46:25 · answer #10 · answered by raven blackwing 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋