Different social customs in those days...
They would live together in the house of Joseph's family, under the watchful eye of the parents.
The first year of espousal would require that the bride-to-be remain a virgin.
2006-12-17 09:31:37
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answer #1
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answered by Bobby Jim 7
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The New Testament doesn't say anything about who they lived with, but a possible indication is that in one gospel an angel appears to Mary then in a completely different time appears to Joseph. If they lived together presumably the angel could have appeared to both at once. Furthermore the New Testament is specific that they had not had "relations" before Jesus was born.... For most Christians, the fear is that any couple that lives together before marriage will naturally have relations, so frankly you can't use Mary & Joseph to refute that Christian argument.
2006-12-17 09:53:14
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Now, what makes you think they were not married?
The "legal procedures" in their time and place were different than ours...that is, they didn't obtain a "marriage liscence". However, the parents made the legal arrangements, the contract was made, Mary was "espoused" (which means "promised", which is not the same thing as "engaged"), when she was visited by the angel. The same angel came to Joseph and told him to go ahead and take Mary to be his wife. The scriptures tell us that Joseph didn't touch his wife until after she'd given birth to Jesus, but they were married in every sense of the word, by the law of Israel.
Most Christians do believe that, in order to be married in the eyes of God, it is necessary to obey the laws of the land concerning marriage, and I tend to agree. But even more important than that, for a man and a woman to be married in the eyes of God means that they come together with the intention of forming a life-long union. Yep..."till death do you part." It's easy to go to bed with someone. The hard part is waking up with that same person, morning after morning, after morning....for the rest of your life. THAT, and nothing less, is what God expects of a man and a woman. That does put a different light on things, doesn't it?
2006-12-17 09:59:21
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The fact is Joseph and mary did not live togeather in sin.
In those days the marriage custom was for the man to take
his bride into his home,that constituted a legal marriage.
Start at Matt.1:19 and read through verse 25...........
2006-12-17 09:51:21
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answer #4
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answered by OldGeezer 3
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Sounds like you are easy to be confused. You get answers from both Christians and Haters and you think they are one in the same... The Jewish way was to have a ceremony that made he couples one. But they didn't cohabitant until after later ceremony. It's like a nun's two sets of vows. Joseph and Mary never did have physical relation, well not till after Jesus was born and Mary's cleansing time was complete... As a christian I don't care if you don't want to get the State's permission or not. If you take a woman she becomes your wife right then. If you don't stay true to her you are an adulterer.... Jim
2006-12-17 09:44:14
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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In Hebrew culture there is a period of espousal were they would live together and act just as there were married but there was no consumation of the marriage (no sex). After the espousal period they were then free to have all the benifits of a fully married couple.
Hope this helps.
God bless.
2006-12-17 09:54:11
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answer #6
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answered by disciple 2
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In the times of the Mosaic law a Man and Woman were considered as good as married when they were betrothed and the Fathers and Rabbi blessed them.
As for us we do not follow Hebrew law or marriage code, and to live together before Christian marriage is wrong because you are not blessed to enter into sexual intercourse until married.
2006-12-17 09:32:39
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answer #7
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answered by Sentinel 7
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I know, ridiculous isn't it? There's no way a man would have been married to a woman and not taken his rights as a husband. Therefore, Mary wasn't a virgin. Its not like women had the right to say no.
2006-12-17 09:39:52
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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The Bible says "before they came together" Assumption is the frist mistake in the err's of misunderstandings? According to 1st Century Jewish Customs, the Groom to be went over to the Bride to be house to meet with her father, with a wedding contract.
The wedding contract was the first stage of the Court-ship, when a Jewish man, found the love of his life. If the Bride to be accepted the contract, a glass of wine was sat in front of her. If she accepted, she drunk the wine, if she refused, the wine was pushed aside.
2006-12-17 09:41:30
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answer #9
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answered by n_007pen 4
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They were engaged, but did not consummate the relationship until after they were married, as was the custom, which followed the law about not committing adultery.
When people "shack up" today, they only do so to make it easier to commit fornication. Even those who do it for financial reasons, still end up committing fornication.
2006-12-17 09:35:55
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answer #10
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answered by FUNdie 7
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