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2006-12-16 07:54:25 · 21 answers · asked by man of ape 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Lion of

I see you stayed away from the question very well, so I am correct the bible is a law book, filled with claims and some people can cash in, many people will never see the truth

2006-12-16 08:03:49 · update #1

21 answers

Slavery was permitted in the Bible because of sin in the world. It existed before the Jews were formed as a nation and it existed after Israel was conquered. God allows many things to happen in the world such as storms, famine, murder, etc. Slavery, like divorce, is not preferred by God. Instead, it is allowed. Where many nations treated their slaves very badly, the Bible gave many rights and privileges to slaves. So, even though it isn't the best way to deal with people, because God has allowed man freedom, slavery then exists. God instructed the Israelites to treat them properly.

The Bible acknowledged the slave’s status as the property of the master (Ex. 21:23; Lev. 25:46),
The Bible restricted the master’s power over the slave. Ex. 21:20).
The slave was a member of the master’s household (Lev. 22:11)
The slave was required to rest on the Sabbath (Exodus 20:10; Deut. 5:14)
The slave was required and to participate in religious observances (Gen. 17:13; Exodus 12:44; Lev. 22:11).
The Bible prohibited extradition of slaves and granted them asylum (Deut. 23:16-17).
The servitude of a Hebrew debt-slave was limited to six years (Ex. 21:2; Deut. 15:12).
When a slave was freed, he was to receive gifts that enabled him to survive economically (Deut. 15:14)
The reality of slavery cannot be denied. Slaves were "slave labor played a minor economic role in the ancient Near East, for privately owned slaves functioned more as domestic servants than as an agricultural or industrial labor force."1

2006-12-16 07:58:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You must first understand there is a difference between a Christian person and a Christianized culture. A Christian is a sinner saved by the work of the cross of Christ. A Christianized culture is one that is influenced by the moral standards of the Holy Bible. If you research slavery in America Christians were at the vangaurd of the early abolition movement. The Christian feels a burning desire to do the will of God as their appreciation for salvation. Note G. Washington as he walked with God thru out the years he came to an understanding that slavery was evil and freed his slaves before his death. The cultural christian follows the moral standards of the Bible unless it interferes with what they want, just like any other relativist. Also Christ tells us that is impossible to prevent evil from happening but woe to those by whom it comes. The death of most of a generation in the Civil War is the penalty this nation paid for allowing slavery. We have paid in blood.

2006-12-16 08:18:06 · answer #2 · answered by HAND 5 · 0 0

i do no longer in my view condone slavery in any experience, yet curiously you probably did no longer examine the bible. It has some very good perspectives on slavery, and them curious approximately it. some Christian your declare to be. Oh, and all the Founding Fathers have been a mix of Dieiests and Thieists, and that's no longer a "Christian u . s . a .", as you call it. Had it been, there could be no seperation if Church and State, and there could be a central authority known faith that one and all might would desire to abide by using. And had that been the case, there could have been no good reason to flee super Britian contained in the 1st place. Say you're a Methodist. How might you sense if the government chosen Baptist to be the religion of he u . s . a .? Or Pentecost? Or Mormon? opt for I say greater?

2016-10-05 09:46:00 · answer #3 · answered by wiemer 4 · 0 0

Some Christians allowed slavery as was practiced in Europe and in Africa at that time and others did not. Most of the founding fathers were opposed to it in principal and that was why there was an eventual abolition which many preachers advocated. To say that Christians were were allowing slavery paints the picture that all Christians were for it when really it is probably more factual to say that most did not.

2006-12-16 08:04:16 · answer #4 · answered by Ernesto 4 · 0 1

That would be like saying why do the Christians of today allow genecide or anything devastating going on in the world around us. I can tell you that it is because of Christians and their prayers that it is still not going on today. Well to the extent of what it use to be. I can tell you this, no true Christian participated in it. The operative word here is TRUE. Some may say with their mouth that they are Christian but the true test comes in is what you do. I can say anything but it is what I do that makes the biggest statement . May God Bless

2006-12-16 08:05:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It was not the Christians so much as it was about the Central African tribes finding a way to get rid of their opponents after battle.

You don't honestly believe 16 white guys could catch 450 African tribesman every week do you? The typical slave ship docked in central Africa at certain known points and watched as one tribe marched another tribe out into the water in chains. That ship had a crew of 16, if it was lucky to have a full crew at all.

2006-12-16 08:01:47 · answer #6 · answered by wolf560 5 · 1 2

I've never heard of Christians claiming the Civil Rights Movement was ours. Besides, they were completely different generations.

2006-12-16 08:00:43 · answer #7 · answered by Simon 3 · 0 1

Slavery had existed since ancient times and some Christians participated in it. Finally the abuses of slavery outraged many Christians to such an extent that they went to war to stop it.

2006-12-16 08:02:35 · answer #8 · answered by The First Dragon 7 · 0 2

Those people who allowed slavery were not true Christians, they were hateful men. So my question is Why did men allow slavery.Notice I said men not women. So you are guilty, take your medicine like a man, it was your sex that caused slavery.

2006-12-16 08:13:48 · answer #9 · answered by angel 7 · 0 1

The ruling-class Americans who condoned, participated in, and benefitted from slavery were never real Christians in the first place. Slavery in the bible had rules which protected the slave from mistreatment. There were no protections for slaves in America. God’s rules for Israelites who possessed slaves were more in line with the practice of indentured servitude where a person could pay off a debt that was owed to another. From my point of view, slave masters in America were genocidal maniacs comparable to Hitler and the Nazis. These so-called Christians allowed slavery because it was profitable and more convenient than doing it themselves or actually paying workers. Early American slave owners used slavery to build the empire which is today called America. These early settlers stole the land and wealth of the aboriginal people and passed it down to their descendants. Without free forced labor America would probably be a third world nation today. These so-called Christians misused the bible to justify the enslavement of weaker peoples in the name of financial gain. In other words, they valued profits over people and saw nothing wrong with massacring weaker nations and forcing people to work for free, rape them, sell their children for profit, dismember, torture, and kill others for financial gain. These early Americans used their version of Christianity to justify slavery and control slaves by making them believe they were inferior beings. The Catholic Church also played a major role in the enslavement of aboriginal people as well through laws and the appropriation of stolen land around the world.
Ruling class American Christians today like to take credit for playing a bigger role in the civil rights movement than they actually played to hide the shame and stigma that comes from building an empire off of the backs of slaves and genocide. American history is often rewritten when it casts a bad light on the ruling class. The truth is that slavery in America was the law of the land which was condoned by most Americans at the time. Slavery ended in America, not because of a few abolitionists but because of the advent of the industrial revolution. The North did not want to compete with the South’s free slave labor. Slaves would be preventing whites from getting jobs so slavery had to end. Even after slavery ended, Jim Crow laws were put into place to keep blacks from gaining equality in America. As a side note, many ancient people in the Middle East and Africa believe that African Americans and most others who were sold in the Transatlantic Slave Trade are the descendant s of the bibles Hebrew Israelites, and this is the reason they were enslaved in the first place (ex. From Babylon to Timbuktu, Hebrewisms of West Africa, Nature Knows no Color Line, & The Hebrew Heritage of our West African Ancestors). If true, this whole concept casts a different light on America’s role in slavery according to the bible (ex. Deuteronomy Chapter 28, Israelite curses). American indigenous Africans of a different blood line sold Africans of another blood line to Europeans and Americans. Please research this but it is a fact that most African Americans share the E1b1A Y Haplogroup and that indigenous Africans share the E1b1b Y Haplogroup, which makes them two different races of people with dark skin. So, one race of people sold another race of people into slavery.

2015-11-30 19:02:59 · answer #10 · answered by walter 1 · 1 0

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