Take for instance the man sat down and drnak a case of beer and saved all of his urine up. What exact amount of urine would it take to fill up the entire toilet anyways?
2006-12-16 04:55:59 · 6 answers · asked by cannonball 1 in Health ➔ Other - Health
typo- drank, NOT drnak
2006-12-16 04:59:10 · update #1
And no, I didn't drink an entire case of beer before typing this question!
2006-12-16 05:00:02 · update #2
It is possible.
2006-12-16 05:02:11 · answer #1 · answered by x_squared 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No way possible. One can hold only 250 cc's of urine before the signal is sent to the brain. Even in extreme cases where a person can produce more it still would not be enough to overflow a toilet...impossible!
2006-12-16 13:33:54 · answer #2 · answered by tamara.knsley@sbcglobal.net 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yeah if he had a bladder the size of an elephant. I dont think anyone could drink a case of beer and not have to urinate . Well i would say at least 2 gal. or more.
2006-12-16 13:00:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Bladders are too small to hold a case of fluid. THat is why we go frequently when we drink.
2006-12-16 13:06:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
They could....but it would take YEARS probably and that means not flushing the toilet....which to be honest is not nice.....stale piss YUCK lol!
2006-12-16 12:59:30 · answer #5 · answered by E 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no way possible.
2006-12-16 12:58:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋