I have this recipe, which is to be made in a jar as a gift, with all dry ingredients inside. It calls for oats, flour, sugar, etc etc... but as well, calls for powdered milk. There are wet ingredients to be added, but only when gift is recieved and ready to make. So, if I do not have this powdered milk to add to the dry ingredients, what would 1 cup of powdered milk be equivalent to in regular milk for when the wet ingredients are to be later added instead?
2006-12-16 03:19:31 · 5 answers · asked by Picklebarrel 1 in Food & Drink ➔ Cooking & Recipes
Dry milk reconstitutes at about 1/4 c powdered milk to 1 c water.
2006-12-16 03:25:50 · answer #1 · answered by rivkarut2004 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're better off just going to the store and getting powdered milk. There's a reason the recipe calls for powdered milk. If you substitute regular milk, you'll have to reduce some of the other "wet" ingredients, or the end result will be too watery. 1 cup of powdered milk with water added is approximately the same as 4 cups of regular milk. See my point?
2006-12-16 03:32:11 · answer #2 · answered by Brad 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Look on the powdered milk box to see how much milk one cup of powder will make. Then advise your recipient to put in that amount of fresh milk.
2006-12-16 03:30:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh come on it would just be easier to buy a box of powdered milk.
2006-12-16 03:40:56 · answer #4 · answered by elaeblue 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you can't find powdered milk you can sub w/ non dairy creamer for coffee that is powder from
2006-12-16 03:25:18 · answer #5 · answered by lee 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋