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where is it say that the bible is not correct
or where is it say that bible has errors
or its just people who is saying that??????

Muslims believe that Mosses is a prophet and God gived him the "Toura' "
Muslims believe that Jessus (Issa) is a prophet and God gived him the "enjeel "
Muslims believe that Mohammad is a prophet and God gived him the "quran"

So if the Bible and Quran from the same God why did the bible change according to muslims why make the quran did not changed.

is there any real proof??????

2006-12-16 02:55:14 · 13 answers · asked by الحقيقة 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

so i think u don't have any proof u just repeated the same answer for another question A2z
try to think before posting plz

2006-12-16 03:04:52 · update #1

Zificos
i asked where in Quran?
so if u can't tell me where, what that will prove?

2006-12-16 03:19:47 · update #2

13 answers

Primarily, Please understand that the Koran does not blatantly say the Old and New Testament are wrong, it says that they were corrupted by men.

That's just another way of saying they're lies.

For example, the Koran says that Satan was cast out of Heaven for not bowing before Adam, whereas in the Bible, it says that Satan had fallen from Grace for Rebellion. Koran. The Cave 18:38

Koran calls Adam as the first Prophet, Bible does not.Qur'an 4:163-165

Koran claims that Abraham's [Ibrahim] inheritence went to Ishmael, whereas the Bible says it went to Isaac [Ishaq]

Bible says Jesus died upon the Cross, Koran says that Jesus magically made Judas take His place.

There are too many such "differences" between the Koran and the Bible for me to detail here.

Incidentally, Moses [Musa] wasn't given the Torah by God, but the Law [Ka'anoon].

Jesus wasn't given the Injeel, even in the Koran, but it was written by many men.

Finally, the Koran wasn't given to Mohammad, even in the Koran, but was taught to Mohammad by Gabriel [Jibrail] and he dictated it to others who wrote it for him, because Mohammad was an illiterate.

There's no "Real Proof" at all that the Koran was the Truth that Mohammad claimed. That's why he made this rule for all Muslims to keep them from questioning him:

O ye who believe! Ask not questions about things which if made plain to you, may cause you trouble. Some people before you did ask such questions, and on that account lost their faith." (Surah 5:101-102).

He, incidentally said this after he'd beheaded four apostates [Muslims leaving Islam].

Merry Christmas!!!

BTW, that A2Z just keeps spamming!?

2006-12-16 03:31:53 · answer #1 · answered by Daimyo 5 · 1 2

-Why do Muslims think the Bible has changed? Well, aside from what the Quran describes, even CHRISTIANS have concluded that the Bible is no longer original. I've mentioned this a few times, but I don't think you came across my answers. In the 80's, a Christian convention held in Cali came to the conclusion that 80% of the Bible had been changed from the original. Now, keep in mind that it's the conclusion of people who have a great bias towards the Bible, not just some Joe with a grudge. More recently, I believe about a year ago, I came across an article in which a Catholic church has decided that they will no longer use the Bible as historical authenticity because of how it has been changed.
It makes alot of sense when you think about it. I'm assuming you are Christian, and if so, take a look at your current Bible, whichever one you have in your posession. Which version of the Bible did yours originate from? And which one did THAT originate from? Current Bibles began after the first translation, which was translated again, which was once again translated, and so on until you reach todays times, when there isn't a single original Bible existing in it's original language. There are manuscripts of translations, but that's as far back as they can go. And if you were to compare that translation to the one you have today, you will find many many differences. With all that confusion, how do you know which verses in your Bible are truly the words of God and which ones may have been mistranslated into something totally different over the centuries?
-Your second question, why we believe the Quran has never changed... well, when the Muslims were exposed to this revelation fo the Bible, they had to make a decision. What can we do to prevent this from happening to the Quran? Due to their hard work 1400 years ago, today we have original Qurans in three museums across the globe, we have originals to compare to. The only differences you will find are that the originals do not have the vowel indicators that today's Qurans do. These indicators help the reader in pronunciation, and have no effect on the actual words of the Quran. You can see the differences between the words with and without vowel indicators here: With (you can see slashes above and below the letters): http://www.barry-baker.com/muslim-perspective/1987/image139.jpg
Without (a very old Quran): http://saaudf.jeeran.com/DSC00187.jpg

In addition to this, yes, you WILL find translations of the Quran, but more often than not the translated version has the original Arabic text within it as well. For example the Yusuf Ali translation. Also, translations are known to be translations of the Quran (theopinion of a man as to what this word means in another language), and not as the real Quran, ie the true Word of God.

2006-12-16 03:19:22 · answer #2 · answered by hayaa_bi_taqwa 6 · 3 2

I plead with my Muslim brothers to please read the following with an open mind. I know that Muslims fear the one Mighty and Everlasting God. If you truly seek the truth of God, I beg you to research these things for yourself:

The fact that the original copies of the Gospels clearly stated that Jesus is God is verified by numerous historical and archaelogical sources.

Josephus was a Jew who betrayed his own people and became an ally of the Romans. He wrote what is considered the most exhaustive history of first century Palestine, completed in 93 A.D. Josephus was a Pharisee and a Roman sympathizer, so he was definitely no friend to the Christian movement. He specifically wrote that "the tribe of the Christians still has not disappeared" - even though he also indicates that Jesus was crucified. Why would people worship someone who had been killed?

Josephus also indicates that the Sanhedrin brought Jesus's brother James to trial. Josephus SPECIFICALLY says that James considered his brother to be the Christ (the Messiah). James was thrown from the pinnacle of the temple for his beliefs but HE NEVER RECANTED. Why would Jesus's own brother think that he was the Christ and why would he be willing to die for it? James was in a position to know if it (Jesus = God) was true or not. Why would someone die for something that they KNEW was not true?

The Roman historian Tacitus, writing in 115 AD, specifically states that the Roman procurator "Pontius Pilatus" executed "Christus" and that the "cult" of Christians was momentarily checked. He then states that after the death of "Christus", the "mischievous superstition" broke out with even more fervor all over the Roman Empire. Tacitus also specifically states that "Nero persecuted the Christians as scapegoats to divert suspicion away from himself for the great fire that devastated Rome in (64 A.D.)" So Christianity had reached Rome from Judea by 64 AD, a mere 30 years after the death of Jesus.

The Roman historian Pliny the Younger was the governor of Bithynia (northwestern Turkey). In a letter to Emperor Trajan in 111 AD (the letter is preserved to this day) he indicates how the Christians chant verses in honor of Christ "as if to a god" and how he punishes them severely if they do it. This clearly shows that the early Christian church considered Jesus to be God himself.

The Jewish Mishnah (completed in 200 AD), which is now incorporated into the Talmud (not a book that would be friendly to Jesus), states that Jesus was a false Messiah who practiced magic. The fact that they specifically mentioned that he practiced magic would seem to indicate that he did some unusual things during his life, even though the Jewish power structure wanted to stamp out his "movement". And it also specifically indicates that Jesus (or his followers) claimed that he was the Messiah.

Many atheist historians in the 18th - 20th centuries claimed that the Gospel accounts had many factual inaccuracies. But as archaeological work has proceeded, many of the fine details in the Gospels have been verified. The following are details that historians believed that the Gospels had wrong but were later verified by archaeological finds: 1. Lysanias was in fact the tetrarch of Abilene 2. there were in fact a class of city officials called "politarchs" as mentioned (in the Greek) by Luke 3. the Pool of Bethseda did in fact have five porticoes as reported by John 4. the discovery of the Pool of Siloam

How can you explain the fulfillment of prohecies like Isaiah 53 and Isaiah 9? How can you explain prophecies like Daniel 7:13-14. The Koran presents us with no such prophecies that are fulfilled over the course of a 700 year span. How can you answer the question of Psalm 22:16? David never had his hands and feet pierced.

Daniel 9:24 says that after the coming of the Anointed One, that God would seal prophecy and vision (written 500 years before the birth of Jesus). This chapter of Daniel also predicts the DATE that the Anointed One would come. Jesus himself (Mark 13:22) said that after he ascended, that "false christs and false prophets will arise to lead astray the people."

2006-12-16 04:24:01 · answer #3 · answered by ANDYMAN 2 · 0 1

by comparing scientifical facts and unbiased reasoning,a person can conclude through common knowledge that the 4 gospels have different facts about the same event that occurred many years before they were actually talked about.the information was handed down after years of being retained in the memories of the people

2006-12-16 03:25:28 · answer #4 · answered by Vernon B 1 · 1 0

Yes its the last book and its an enough proof. So tell me why God sent Qur'an? To make difference or discrimination in His mankind or to gather them under the most logical and accurate way of belief????

2006-12-16 03:16:09 · answer #5 · answered by Zifikos 5 · 2 2

#Among them are unlettered folk who know the Scripture not except from hearsay. They but guess.# - The Quran, Chp 2, verse 78

#Woe, then, to those who write the book with their hands and then say: This is from Allah, so that they may take for it a small price; therefore woe to them for what their hands have written and woe to them for what they earn.# - The Quran, Chp 2, verse 79

#And verily We gave unto Moses the Scripture and We caused a train of messengers to follow after him, and We gave unto Jesus, son of Mary, clear proofs (of Allah's sovereignty), and We supported him with the Holy spirit. Is it ever so, that, when there cometh unto you a messenger (from Allah) with that which ye yourselves desire not, ye grow arrogant, and some ye disbelieve and some ye slay?# - The Quran, Chp 2, verse 87

For Muslims, the verses are more than enough to prove that the Bible and the Talmud (Old Testament) are corrupted.

But for u, a Christian that didn't believe the Quran as the Word of God, surely that verses aren't fill ur head.
Therefore, I'll quote from the Bible itself, some misgrevious errors.

---------------------------------
The mistranslation in the Bible.

#Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold, a VIRGIN shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.# (Isaiah 7:14 - King James Version)

#Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold, a YOUNG WOMAN shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.# (Isaiah 7:14 - Revised Standard Version)

The correct translation of the word 'almah' is young woman not virgin. The word for virgin is 'bethulah'. Its showed that the KJV have errors during translation. And can errors be attribute to the God? U said the Bible is the word of God, but this incident showed that the God didn't preserve His Words from errors.

-----------------------
Disagreement about the concept of Trinity

#For there are three that bear record in heaven, the FATHER, the WORD, and the HOLY GHOST: and these three are one.# (1st Epistle of John 5:7 - King James Version)

If u open the Revised Standard Version, u won't find this verse. This verse is the only closest point to back the concept of Trinity (the word TRINITY is not mentioned even once in the Bible of any version. But after much discussions between 50 cooperating denominations and 32 scholars (Bible scholars) of the highest eminent, they agreed that 1st Epistle of John 5:7 in King James Version is just a fabrication, an interpolation, and they thrown it out from the Revised Standard Version. Thus, they indirectly admitted that Trinity never exist in Jesus's preaching (peace be upon him).

----------------
Alteration of the Bible, in and out

#So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was TAKEN UP INTO HEAVEN, and sat down at the right hand of God# (Mark 16:19 - King James Version)

#While he blessed them, he parted from them, and was CARRIED UP INTO HEAVEN.# (Luke 24:51- King James Version)

These two verses are the only verses that mention about the ascension of Jesus. Again if u open the Revised Standard Version (that were published before 1952), u will be shocked. The page about Mark 16 end at Mark 16:08. Mark 16:09 - 20 are missing. There is a huge blank on that page. The Bible scholars and Bible expert said that Mark 16:09-20 are another fabrications. But if u open the New Revised Standard Version (that were published after 1952), the missing verses were there. Why? Because, the KJV lovers treat the Bible experts and scholars who went to the MOST ancient text dated back 300 years after the departure of Jesus (peace be upon him), who published the RSV, if they (the Bible scholars) didn't put the verses back, they (the KJV lovers) will preach to people not to buy the RVS. So, although the Bible scholars knew that the verses were not there in the ancient scrolls, yet they still put the verses back becoz there were threathen by the KJV fans. See? They took it out, put it back freely. Another name for alteration.

U may say, "I believe in King James Version only. So ur point didn't validate.
#If any man shall add to these things (or delete) God shall add unto him the plagues written in this Book.# (Revelation 22:18-19 King James Version). So KJV according to itself is not the Words of God, because the KJV delete some books The Book of Judith, The Book of Tobias, The Book of Baruch,The Book of Esther, etc

---------------------------------
The writers is not inspired.

#And as Jesus passed forth thence, he (Jesus) saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and He (Jesus) saith unto him(Matthew), follow me (Jesus) and he(Matthew) arose, and followed him (Jesus).#
(Matthew 9:9 - any version)

Without any stretch of the imagination, one can see that the "he's" and the "him's" of the above narration do not refer to Jesus or Matthew as its author, but some third person writing what he saw and heard - a hearsay account
If Matthew were the author, it would be
#And as Jesus passed forth thence, he (Jesus) saw me, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and He (Jesus) saith unto me(Matthew), follow me (Jesus) and I (Matthew) arose, and followed him (Jesus).

So the author is not Matthew. Only 11 disciples were inspired by the God (12 plus Paul) as described by Jesus (peace be upon him). IF Matt didn't write it, it must be someone else who wrote it. And only 11 (or 12) were inspired by the God to write the New Testament, and they all have their own writings. So it means that someone else, who were not inspired, wrote the so called - Gospel according to Matthew. An unknown without approval by God wrote His Words.

-----------------------
I have many thing to bring before u. But my answer is long enough to bore ppl who are as described -seeing they see not; hearing they hear not, neither do they understand." (Matthew 13:13 - any version)

2006-12-16 03:50:51 · answer #6 · answered by general 3 · 1 1

Thru translations from language to language, there have been many changes in the Bible-----words do not always mean the same in all languages.

2006-12-16 03:05:57 · answer #7 · answered by Shossi 6 · 2 2

Are you denying the multiple Bibles and the multiple versions of the Bible.
So there you go.
The holy Quran does not deny the Injeel (The Bible)
It mentions the versions altered by man to suit his lifestyle.

2006-12-16 03:04:21 · answer #8 · answered by Sherzade 5 · 3 4

They know the Quran is contrary to Jesus's teachings and the Bible, and they know it cannot withstand Biblical scrutiny ....so Muslims have no recourse but to try to discredit the Scriptures as 'inaacurate, etc...etc., etc....

2006-12-16 03:09:14 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

God is cursing those who changed his books to sell it with little bit of money:

[75] Do you (faithful believers) covet that they will believe in your religion in spite of the fact that a party of them (Jewish rabbis) used to hear the Word of Allâh (the Taurât (Torah)) then they used to change it knowingly after they understood it?
2:75

[79] Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands and then say, "This is from Allâh," to purchase with it a little price! Woe to them for what their hands have written and woe to them for that they earn thereby.
2:79

2006-12-16 03:03:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4 3

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