Obviously they could not have been changed after Mohammed since there are around 5,300 manuscripts of the whole or part of the Greek text of the New Testament pre-dating Mohammed still in existence, including the Codex Vaticanus (325-350 AD) located in the Vatican library and the Codex Siniaticus (350 AD) located in the British Museum.
The Dead Sea Scrolls dated around 125 BC have bought to light manuscripts of the Old Testament books including the complete text of Isaiah. The Septuagint translation of the Hebrew text into Greek in around 165 BC also confirms the fact that there has been no change to the text of the Old Testament since that time.
there is nothing in the Koran saying this but there are verses saying the opposite, speaking highly of the Bible and advising Muslims to learn from Jews and Christians:
After presents a problem:
‘there is nothing in the Koran saying this but there are verses saying the opposite, speaking highly of the Bible and advising Muslims to learn from Jews and Christians:
‘And if thou (Mohammed) art in doubt concerning that which we reveal unto thee, then question those who read the scripture that was before thee’ (i.e. the Bible). Sura (chapter) 10.95. ‘O ye people of the book! Ye are not grounded on anything until ye observe the Taurat (Torah) and the Injil (Gospel) and that which has been revealed unto you from your Lord.’ Sura 5.68.
2006-12-15 03:57:17 · 12 answers · asked by Jeanmarie 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OK so not predjudice, but making a point.
Please try and consider this with me with an open mind. Now, would Muslims change the Koran? No. OK, when the Gospels were written they were copied and spread all over the world. There are thousands of ancient copies all over the world and they are nearly identical. Why? Because, and this is important, IT NEVER CHANGED. Scientist and anthropologists agree that it was never changed. There are some very minor changes, these are typically like changing Jesus to Jesus Christ ans so forth. Hey, atheist scientists insist its the same 2000 year old fairy tale it always was. This arguement should really go away, it is using a lie.
I have no idea what Mohammad had, but the Gospels, we have today, have always been the same (in Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic whatever their original language).
You can either accept this or not, but most scientist would consider rejection to be done out of predjudice rather than reason.
God Bless.
2006-12-15 04:05:24 · answer #1 · answered by BigPappa 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Heres a simple equation.
Christianity is a monotheistic religion yes?
Monotheistic means One God yes?
So if there is One God then what makes sense is EVERYTHING other than the One is a creature yes?
So if a religion starts importing creatures into the state of One God and dont get me wrong but Jesus WAS created wasnt he?
Then how can it be NOT changed?
But the change is subtle, and twisted in details. And as a saying goes...the devil hides in the details.
This doesnt necessarily mean ALL of the original Bible was changed. Merely some of it. Good luck finding which.
Oh and to really get down to it....read a book and try to see if they put any obvious creature in Gods height...then and only then youll have proof ..its changed.
Cause obviously, God is One...and none of His messages will include the addition of other beings into worship but Him.
2006-12-15 04:02:40 · answer #2 · answered by Antares 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Tora and Bible pre-dates the Qur'an and therefore are not corruput. Even the "Non Spiritually Influenced" Qur'an agrees to this.
Quote
Suras 6:34, 6:115, 10:64 and 50:28,29 clearly says to Muslims,
"No change can there be in the words of Allah" and that Allah cannot alter (or abrogate) his words." So the Torah and Christian Gospels are correct, because Allah did verify this fact.
This clearly makes the Muslim Qur'an false; because it contradicts Allah.
Please open your eyes and see Islam for what it really is!
2006-12-15 06:27:33 · answer #3 · answered by JDJ34 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no longer Mohammed, it really is pertaining to Jesus and His church. music 5:16 His mouth is maximum sweet: yea, he's altogether gorgeous. it is my loved, and it is my chum, O daughters of Jerusalem. (KJV) no longer Mohammed, it really is pertaining to the Holy Spirit of God. How can Mohammed stay in you? John 14:16-17 16 and that i visit wish the daddy, and he shall furnish you with yet another Comforter, that he would abide with you for ever; 17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the international won't be able to receive, because it seeth him no longer, neither knoweth him: yet ye understand him; for he dwelleth with you, and could be in you. (KJV)
2016-10-18 08:06:41 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible, as the collection of books we now consider the Bible, did not exist until the Council of Nicaea 325ad. Changes have been made in interpretation since it's inception and continue to this day.
2006-12-15 04:02:04 · answer #5 · answered by Phoenix, Wise Guru 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Islam was not even started until 700 years after Jesus Christ death.
There was no religion called Islam.
It is based ( loosely ) on the old & new Testement- contridicted over & over again, with new "commandments" inserted chapters later in the book.
Ramblings really.
2006-12-15 04:02:02 · answer #6 · answered by IN Atlanta 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, the Bible was changed before and after Mohammed. The Quran was changed only after Mohammed.
2006-12-15 03:59:24 · answer #7 · answered by nondescript 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Is there a question here, or do you just want all the moslems to start reading the bible again?
2006-12-15 04:01:25 · answer #8 · answered by ye_river_xiv 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The bible is constantly under revision by the Vatican, plus new scrolls are always being found and translated.
2006-12-15 03:59:20 · answer #9 · answered by Yngona D 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Quran never changed, not even a dot has changed. but the bible has changed many times even at the time of prophet muhammad(pbuh).
2006-12-15 04:13:16 · answer #10 · answered by covered beauty 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋