Does Islam allow men to marry underage girls who have not attained puberty yet?

Question

I heard about prophet Muhammed marrying a 9 year old child girl and I thought it might be just a historical dilemma. But I found a verse in the Quran that gave me the impression that Islam really allows men to marry girls who have not attained puberty yet. The verse [4] from Al Talak [65] states that:

"and for those of your wives who stopped having their monthly period, they can not get married for three months after you divorce them. And for those who HAS NOT ATTINED PUBERTY YET it is the same".

Here is the verse, along with its original Arabic interpretation:
http://quran.al-islam.com/Tafseer/DispTafsser.asp?nType=1&bm=&nSeg=0&l=arb&nSora=65&nAya=4&taf=KATHEER&tashkeel=0

Unfortunately I tried to look for Yusuf Ali's translation for that verse and I found it not accurate and therefore you should not refer to it when answering my question, which is:

Is it true that Islam allow men to marry girls who have not attained puberty yet?

Answer 1

you need to bash England on this too
look into the history and you will see exactly what I'm talking about
not that I agree, but it goes on

Answer 2

First of all you have the verse all wrong, the versse should read: "And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women---if you doubt, then their period is 3 months, and those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah----He will make for him of his matter ease." You took a verse from the Quran and left dome of it out and added your own interpretation to it. The verse is actually talking about the process of divorce. When a man and a women get divorced the women must wait 3 months before getting remarried (to make sure she isn't pregnant). The verse is telling the circumstances in which a women should wait at least 3 months before getting remarried. I don't know where you got the part saying "HAS NOT ATTAINED PUBERTY YET", that is nowhere in the Quran. No Muslims cannot marry anyone who has not obtained puberty. Stop trying to corrupt peoples minds about Islam.

Answer 3

Historical accounts say that Muhammad (pbuh) did not marry a 9-year old, she was likely older, at least 12. I believe she got engaged (betrothed) at 9, but she didn't move in with him until after the age of puberty, which was when you were considered to have reached adulthood (remember, different culture and life expectancy was short). No, Muslims are forbidden from marrying anyone under the age of puberty.

As to the verse, it's referring to those who don't have their periods. Yusuf Ali's book lists the Ayah you quoted as this:

(65:4) "Such of your women as have passed the age of monthly courses, for them the prescribed period, if ye have any doubts, is three months, and for those who have no courses (it is the same): for those who carry (life within their wombs), their period is until they deliver their burdens: and for those who fear Allah, He will make their path easy"

Answer 4

islam allows it yes....but ...and this is a big BUT....u need to understand something...

just like islam allows a man to marry 4 wives...there was a reason behind it.....

during the early days of islam....many wars were happening in the gulf area due to the tribes wanting to fight off the further expansion of islam....so many men died.....when the verse came which allowed men to marry more than one woman...it was for the reason that many women would be widowed after these wars.....and it is to sustain her honor ...since it was very difficult for women during those times to make a living for themselves.....and for the man to take care of the children.....so it had a cause...a good one....nowadays arab and muslim men dont do it for that cause....but out of perversion and being oversexed....

the same goes for your question......
but u need to know something as well....if u look deeper into the texts...or find some books on the subject...im sorry i dont have anything to cite from...but the prophet did not enter her until she reached pubirty...yes he married her before...but didnt do anythign until she matured.....u might wonder how one does that? well he had other wives....and he was a pious man.....so we dont have to compare how we think to how he thought....plus..women from hotter climates mature earlier.....and the middle east and africa have some of the youngest mature and pubirty ages in the world......back then it might have been even younger......

all in all...like i gave the example of the 4 wives...theres a reason for it....unfortunately i am not wise or knowlegable enough to the reason for it....but to answer ur question...yes it is allowed....although it is not in practice during the present times....

Answer 5

This is the only thing I could find about 3 months. I am not sure what translation you have used. But I do not find it to be correct. A child is a child. And when the prophet Muhammad (saws) married Aisha, she still played with dolls. If he didnt marry her at that age, someone else was going to. Things were much different 1450 years ago than they are today. For instance in Holland the age of sexual consent is 12. In the bible girls were married off young.


[65.4] And (as for) those of your women who have despaired of menstruation, if you have a doubt, their prescribed time shall be three months, and of those too who have not had their courses; and (as for) the pregnant women, their prescribed time is that they lay down their burden; and whoever is careful of (his duty to) Allah He will make easy for him his affair.
[65.5] That is the command of Allah which He has revealed to you, and whoever is careful of (his duty to) Allah, He will remove from him his evil and give him a big reward.

Answer 6

when Mohamed peace be up on him married aysha she was 9 years old . and guess what she was engaged to another man before the great prophet Mohamed !

in his culture that was normal to every body , they was marring young women , they didn't give puberty that attention like our days , its about culture so they used to do that , and if you look more about many culture of America in the 20's they do the same.

second: god ask Mohamed peace be up on him to marry this girl , and when he died she tell 25% of his hadiths and teach Islam to alot of people , this is the wisdom of the god .

and now its not necessary that we have girls married underage girls , the ayah that you refer to that conditions in the Mohamed (pbuh) age so it most be there a law for that moreover their is a women didn't have a period for some reason , so there is two types of women can follow this law .

if you can see that qur'an give all the probability and all conditions :).

hope i explain that clearly ^_^

Answer 7

by saying, "And for those who has not attained puberty is the same" it means that you CANNOT get married..because the whole topic of the Verse is about marrige and Puberty and in the beggining its i said that..they cant gaet married.... so i guess its clearer..Man u really need to get help in reading comprehension..

Answer 8

This is why when you see the ratio of rapes here in the free world that are comitted by some of these guys you see and hear that they are all pleading that it is legal in "OUR COUNTRY" to screw any young girl they want to. I see some of these creeps at our kids music classes where they also teach dance and they do everything but rape the youngsters with their eyes watching them come out of rehearsals. I have actually gone up to some and asked what the **** they are staring at, as their eyes are you know where at the pubic areas and practically drooling.

Answer 9

That verse reffers to women with menstruation problems and don'tr have monthly cycles, not underaged ones.

Answer 10

Yes according to your source.

Answer 11

google islam camel urine

and see for yourself muslim run websites that admit that their prophet moHAMmad drank camel piss.

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