when they fled from the bad guy, Joseph left with his wife and baby. When did they get married? I am very confused, although not religious I am quite curious.
2006-12-13 10:29:10 · 13 answers · asked by Emma C 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This someone having a laugh I think!
The notion of 'engagement didn't even exist until the middle ages so as a point of historical accuracy...NOT!!!
I think this is a piece of 'blairism' being foisted on your kids school.
I would like to add that the three 'kings' weren't kings at all...they were priests from persia. As such they were muslims. No licences...no wedding. The priests were there because the baby jesus was and is a prophet in islam.
Joseph and Mary weren't married...but that doesn't matter because he wasn't the father anyway!
2006-12-13 10:35:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
In a Jewish marriage there are three stages. First, the two families agreed to the union. Second, a public announcement was made and a pledge made, somewhat like an engagement today, except their relationship could only be broken through death or divorce ( even though they could not have sex). Third, the couple was married and began living together because if it was not so, this was cause for a severe stigma among the people, which ends in stoning the woman to death. (See Deuteronomy 22:23, 24). In Matthew 1:24 "After Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife...But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son..."
2006-12-13 11:31:46 · answer #2 · answered by charmaine f 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A. When Joseph and Mary first arrived in Bethlehem to be taxed, they were betrothed (Matt. 1; Lk. 2: 5).
B. While in Bethlehem and shortly before Jesus' birth, it appears Joseph and Mary were married. This is based on Matthew's account. At the point of Matthew 1: 18, Joseph had not taken Mary to live with him. However, in verse 24 we read, "and took unto him his wife."
C. Most scholars believe verse 24 is saying that Mary became Joseph's wife in the legal sense of the word, at that point. "And took unto him his wife" was before Jesus' birth (Matt. 1: 24, 25).
But there was no union between them until after Jesus was born.
2006-12-13 13:59:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was promised to Joseph. That was common in those days to be pledged to marriage at a young age. Mary and Joseph were not allowed to be married until after the birth of Christ. But the arrangement they had was binding. Arranged marriage still take place in some countries.
2006-12-13 11:22:45 · answer #4 · answered by angel 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is one interpretation that is sometimes used. I believe it has some precedent in Judaism. It was explained in that fashion to me (ages ago) by Jews, who can account for the `engaged` or `fiancee`description within the complicated Judaic laws.It is probable that the school is `normalising` the Joseph and Mary mystery, and for youngsters that is a perfectly fine approach. Others on this board would tell you that Mary carried an illegitimate Roman child, and Joseph was her `minder`. Others tell of Joseph escorting previously impregnated Mary, travelling with his `seed born to rule`. Stick with fiancee, saves a lot of trouble.
2006-12-13 10:47:43 · answer #5 · answered by ED SNOW 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were married before they went to Bethlehem, and they only went there because the Romans had imposed a tax saying that the men of any household had to pay an annual yearly tax in the city/town that he was born in, which would be Bethlehem.
2006-12-13 10:42:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were "betrothed"
more than just a fiance
something like "engaged to be married"
but it was even more than that.
They were considered as PROMISED to each other.
Normally, then the groom-to-be goes and prepares a place (a home) then comes and claims the bride, takes her home, and they then live as husband and wife.
But when Joseph found that Mary was "with child", he claimed her as his wife but did not act as husband and wife until after her child was born.
2006-12-13 10:50:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The term "was pledged to be married" is the same as saying "who had been engaged before marriage". That is to say, they were spouses all along but the term implies that their marriage was known to their families and God, thus why Joseph was considering divorce.
The concept of marriage is very different today.
2006-12-13 10:39:51 · answer #8 · answered by phoenix_slayer2001uk 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know but one thing I do know if my Fiance was pregnant from a source other than my self she wouldn't be my Fiance.
I'm sorry but I stopped believing in religion when I was old enough to no that miracles don't happen. After all the Churches don't believe that children should be born out of wed-lock. If you was to ask me it continuously contradicts every thing it says.
2006-12-13 10:43:21 · answer #9 · answered by Gilly 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
remember the very actual risk that Mary will be raped various circumstances in the course of the holiday and both would probable be blown up by suicide bombers also. Ah, the holy land. isn't faith impressive???
2016-11-26 01:37:24 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋