The translation of the bible was young woman not virgin. also the bible hints that Mary was raped by a Roman soldier in the book of matthew.
read this article under section called rape:
http://www.bbc.co.uk/religion/religions/christianity/history/virginmary_4.shtml
There was an ancient legend from the Jewish side that Mary was the victim of a rape. They even gave us the name of the Roman soldier who was supposed to have carried out this rape, a man called Panthera, which apparently was quite a common name for Roman soldiers.
2006-12-13 00:18:29 · 14 answers · asked by hello 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Its what we were taught
2006-12-13 00:19:48 · answer #1 · answered by Jamie G 4 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Your BBC source is one of the most poorly documented and most unscholarly internet "rags" on the web today. Next time, why not just make things up?
"Alma" is the word from Isaiah that refers to EITHER a young woman, or a virgin, but what kind of a sign from God would it be for a young woman to conceive?
Regarding your other comments, they are simply self serving statements from a group of folks who are known for their false traditions and stiff-neckedness.
The Bible NEVER hints at Mary being raped, in Matthew, or anywhere else.
Furthermore, all the early members of the church knew the truth about Mary's virginity, and why it was necessary for the mother of Jesus to be a sinless virgin, in order to bring the son of God into the world as the perfect and unspotted sacrifice for sin.
Our redemption would have been impossible, and Christ's life and death would have been a wasted and failed mission, if everything had not occurred exactly as the true church has always testified.
2006-12-13 04:47:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Responding to DougLawrence:
Specifically, Alma means a "young woman" THEREFORE it could be one who was a virgin or not. In other words, the oln yway to tell is from the context. And the context clearly indicates that she was not.
For the record, the sign wasn't the child being born. It was the child who was born and grew up and then something happened in the time of Ahav. You really need to read more than one verse in Isaiah 7 (i.e. more than just verse 14!).
You are correct that there is no evidence that Mary was raped. Then again, there is no evidence that she was a virgin either.
Thus, since your bible says that Joseph was not her father, then someone else must have been. That being the case, either she commited adultery or was raped.
(Then again, since I'm a religious Jew, it really doesn't matter to me.)
2006-12-13 12:08:43 · answer #3 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well there is no hinting that mary was ever raped. read the book for yourself.
did you read the BBC article, the "evidence" for her being raped wouldn't be taken seriously be a 3 yr old. You'd fail any college paper if you used "evidence" like that
people think mary was a virgin because the new testament says so. it wouldn't be a miracle if a non-virgin had a kid would it?
the idea of the perputual virgin and her assumption however are man-made traditions
2006-12-13 00:21:25 · answer #4 · answered by Cornelius O 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
This is utter rubbish,there was a very strict code of conduct that Rome enforced on it`s soldiers in relation to the Jews and anything that would have sparked a riot would have meant instant death to any soldier.
This myth of yours is just that,,a myth.
2006-12-13 00:22:44 · answer #5 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
She was married and had children after Jesus. She could not still be a virgin. That's how she is deified by man to be rembered by her significance in relation to the birth of Jesus and the salvation of the world.
She didn't get officially married until after the conception of Jesus. So, virgin can still apply to a "unmarried woman".
2006-12-13 00:24:57 · answer #6 · answered by Reel Homme 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I have never heard this; however, I do know that the original word was not 'virgin' as we understand it. A virgin to the ancient Jews was an "unmarried woman".
2006-12-13 00:21:19 · answer #7 · answered by Yngona D 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The brothers and sisters of Jesus were not necessarily his actual siblings. Back then brother was an all encompassing word and it could very well have been cousins that they are referring to or Joseph could have been a widower with children from a previous marriage.
2006-12-13 01:54:15 · answer #8 · answered by travelguruette 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You are going to believe what the Jewish community tells you about Mary?
If they recognize his birth from a virgin, they would have recognize He may actually be the Messiah.
2006-12-13 00:22:18 · answer #9 · answered by Mav here! 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
If so, then why does the Bible say the seed of a woman, and not man?
2006-12-13 00:21:25 · answer #10 · answered by RB 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
She was a virgin untill she married Joseph . She then had Jesus and 6 more.
2006-12-13 00:26:44 · answer #11 · answered by samssculptures 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋