Hundreds of years before Jesus, there was a passion story told about a God man, born of a virgin mother, in a stable. He travels about with his followers, preaching and performing miracles, including turning water into wine. Eventually, he incurs the wrath of the religious authorities, who are appalled that he refers to himself as the son of god. He allows himself to be arrested and tried for blasphemy- a willing self-sacrifice. He is found guilty and executed, only to rise from the grave three days later, where the women weeping at his tomb do not recognize him until he assumes his divine form. This god, also one of the first depicted crucified, is the vine-God Dionysus.
http://altreligion.about.com/library/weekly/aa052902a.htm
2006-12-12
15:33:30
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14 answers
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asked by
skeptic
6
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Psalm 83:18 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
Public Domain
18That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth
2006-12-12 15:35:40
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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i'm sorry, The Jews do renowned Jesus, presently the pastime of the Christ, The Jewish community replaced into all bent off style over the very truth, that folk ought to look at them for killing Jesus, so as that they do comprehend the fact on that, all so Muslims worship God/Allah as a prophet the comforter Jesus and Christians believe not in elementary words God the daddy, yet as well the Son Jesus, the only which replaced into Born on Dec twenty fifth. Get it, or do you think in Santa Claus.
2016-11-30 12:33:51
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answer #2
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answered by binford 4
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Question: "Are the ideas of Jesus and Christianity borrowed from Mithra and Zoroastrianism?"
Answer: Did Judaism and Christianity borrow the Messiah, the resurrection and final judgment from Zoroastrianism / Mithra? Many doctrines of the Christian faith have parallels in Zoroastrianism, i.e. virgin birth, son of God, resurrection. Some scholars say that Zarathustra (a.k.a. Zoroaster) lived around 600-500 BC. If that were the case, David, Isaiah and Jeremiah (all of whom mention the Messiah, the resurrection and the final judgment in their writings), lived and wrote before Zarathustra. Some scholars say that Zoroaster lived sometime between 1500 and 1200 BC. If that were the case, the case for Christianity borrowing from Zoroastrianism would be stronger, but the fact is we don’t know when Zarathustra lived (hence the disagreement among scholars) and so this argument is speculative at best. The Greek historian Herodotus (5th Century BC) doesn’t mention him in his treatise on the Medo-Persian religions, though Plato, who was born roughly around the time Herodotus died, does mention him in his Alcibiades (see Wikipedia’s entry on Zoroaster; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoroaster).
But establishing when Zarathustra lived is only the first step. Next we have to establish what he actually taught (as opposed to what modern Zoroastrianism claims he taught). The only source for Zarathustra’s teachings is the Avesta, and the oldest copies we have of the Avesta date from the 13th Century AD. The late date for this collection of writings lends no support whatsoever to the idea that Christians borrowed from Zoroastrianism (the oldest copies of the Jewish Scriptures which we have today date centuries before Christ and the oldest complete manuscripts of the Christian Scriptures we have date from the 4th Century AD).
This looks to me to be another case of skeptics citing a pre-Christian religion, assuming that the post-Christian form of the religion (which we know about) has remained faithful to the pre-Christian form of the religion (which we know nothing about), and speculating that the similarities between the religion and Christianity are due to Christianity borrowing from the religion in question. It’s a philosophical argument without solid evidence to back it up. Have we any good reason not to suppose that it was Zoroastrianism which borrowed from Christianity and not vice versa? We know that Zoroastrianism borrowed freely from the polytheistic faiths of the region in which it became popular. Mithra, for example, was a Persian god who found a prominent role in Zoroastrianism. Mithra’s Hindu counterpart is the god Mitra.
All philosophical arguments aside, we know that Jesus Christ was a real historical figure, that He fulfilled specific prophecies written and preserved hundreds of years before His life, that He died on a cross, and that He was reported to have risen from the dead and interacted with men and women who were willing to suffer horribly and die for this testimony.
Recommended Resource: The Kingdom of the Cults, revised and updated edition.
2006-12-12 15:45:00
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Didn't david coresh also travel the great state of texas with a group of followers performing "miracles" and eventually allowing himself to be murdered by the vicious FBI. Some say he escaped, since his body was never found. Hmm, kind of makes you wonder....you know, wonder about your idiotic question.
2006-12-12 15:38:51
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_1RHYYYG294
Ok i saw your link, watch this.
And that Dionysus info you claim is wrong, as the girl above me states.
The modern scholar Barry Powell also argues that Christian notions of eating and drinking "the flesh" and "blood" of Jesus were influenced by the cult of Dionysus. Certainly the Dionysus myth contains a great deal of cannibalism, in its links to Ino (however, one must note that Dionysian cannibalism has no correlation with self-sacrifice as a means of propitiation). Dionysus was also distinct among Greek gods, as a deity commonly felt within individual followers. In a less benign example of influence on Christianity, Dionysus' followers, as well as another god, Pan, are said to have had the most influence on the modern view of Satan as animal-like and horned.[10] It is also possible these similarities between Christianity and Dionysiac religion are all only representations of the same common religious archetypes. Furthermore, it is worth noting that the story of Jesus turning water into wine is only found in the Gospel of John, which differs on many points from the other Synoptic Gospels. That very passage, it has been suggested, was incorporated into the Gospel from an earlier source focusing on Jesus' miracles.[11]
It is commonly accepted as a "myth"
And its sourcing Gnostic Gospels? PLease!
I can see how Catholics got imagery from this, like satans, but how do you explain the death, burial resurrection?
try this
http://www.returntogod.com
2006-12-12 15:37:34
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Nice research
2006-12-12 15:35:55
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answer #6
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answered by Greyboy's Ghost 2
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You are getting the Dionysus story wrong. I suggest you look it up again. This sort of spin has been deliberately distorted in an attempt to discredit Jesus Christ (from a pagan perspective). It doesn't work!
2006-12-12 15:37:12
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answer #7
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answered by MamaBear 6
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Wow. That is very interesting. I had never heard about that! Great link!
2006-12-12 15:43:19
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answer #8
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answered by country_girl 6
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And they said you would not amount to anything. A word to the wise.><>
2006-12-12 15:38:36
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answer #9
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answered by CEM 5
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Prove it. Show me some evidence in the ancient writings that substantiate your story.
2006-12-12 15:39:11
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answer #10
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answered by wefmeister 7
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