Genesis 1:26 And God said Let US make man in OUR image, after OUR likeness:^^^
^^^^^^ ^^^^^^
My question is who was US and OUR ?
2006-12-12 13:30:14 · 9 answers · asked by jamnjims 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Father the Son and the Holy Spirit. xx
2006-12-12 13:33:24 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
I notice a pattern that I'm hoping you notice too. Many people are saying that it refers to the "Holy Trinity" (Father, Son, and Holy Ghost/Spirit), but why, then, does God use singular pronouns in reference to Himself throughout the rest of the Bible (me, my, mine)?
(As a side note: the idea of a triune god, like the Holy Trinity, is a Pagan concept that was not adopted by the Christian religion until the 300s C.E. Any arguments containing the claim that "us" and "our" refers to the trinity is thus irrelivent. There is NOTHING in the Bible that states that Yahweh, Jesus and the Holy Spirit were three parts of one godhead.)
The truth is in the translations. In the first bit of Genesis, the word "God" is translated from ELHM (Elohim), a Hebrew word that is not only plural, but also bi-gendered (referencing both male and female genders). This is referencing not the Holy Trinity, as all members of the Holy Trinity are male, nor the angels, as the angels have no genders. It is referencing the other gods.
There are many gods, and they all played a part in the creation of the universe and everything within it. The Bible includes this story to explain how everything came to be, but the rest of the Bible contains only stories about one god in particular. Throughout the rest of the Bible, the word "God" (or "LORD God" in some translations) is translated from YHWH (Yahweh), a Hebrew word for this one specific god.
Excellent question!
2006-12-12 21:47:47 · answer #2 · answered by Lady of the Pink 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This has been asked a gazillion times, many say angels, others say Jesus and so on. Was the Father speaking to the Son? Or was the Son speaking to the Father? Was it the Holy Ghost speaking to the "other two"? Is there a proper interpretation of this verse which does not divide God into separate persons?
The scripture plainly states in Deut. 6:4, "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" And in Eph. 4:5, "One Lord, one faith, one baptism,".
"God," in Genesis chapter one, comes from the Hebrew, "Elohim."
2006-12-12 21:38:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Holy Trinity-God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit.
Although I have heard that he was referring to himself(God) and the angels, but I think it was the Holy Trinity. God Bless!
2006-12-12 21:33:13 · answer #4 · answered by Julia 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It's a form of respect to refer to oneself as we and is called the "Royal We." Even if God is strictly unique (no trinity) it is still a term of respect. For example (random and unrelated) does the following sentence make sense:
If one (singular) needs to drink they (plural) should get water.
Maybe that makes sense? So that it neueters the noun and makes it gender-neutral. Sorry if i dont make sense...
2006-12-12 21:37:59 · answer #5 · answered by justmyinput 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The Trinity.
2006-12-12 21:31:45 · answer #6 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
I saw that a while back...our I believe is Jesus...
2006-12-12 21:32:11 · answer #7 · answered by I give you the Glory Father ! 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
as was once said... its a Royal We.
2006-12-12 21:34:00 · answer #8 · answered by RW 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Uh...the royal "We"? God and his elves?
2006-12-12 21:32:04 · answer #9 · answered by Rebecca 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋