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3 answers

Yes... its a gender definition.... a = female i = male

2006-12-12 07:01:45 · answer #1 · answered by Boring Old Fart 3 · 0 0

Yes I have a few Polski mates and one of them tried to explain it to me but basically a couple with two children, a boy and a girl, all the M and the two F of would have different surnames the girl's name ends in ska. and my Polski mate the system was insane to.

2006-12-12 15:11:48 · answer #2 · answered by ♣ My Brainhurts ♣ 5 · 0 0

Only if the ending is -ski, - cki, -dzki etc. Then a woman's name will have a form of - ska, -cka, -dzka respectively.

2006-12-12 15:09:59 · answer #3 · answered by ~ B ~ 4 · 0 0

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