it's because of his limited reading capability in other language. can he really understand Hebrew language or he has misinterpret it using arabic language that causes the meaning out of context
2006-12-11 23:45:51 · 11 answers · asked by ubuntu 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
islam has so many domination . one the famous right now is Bahai
2006-12-11 23:53:14 · update #1
Jesus did not rewrite any of the Old Testament books which had been completed centuries before His time. In fact, he and his apostles read and taught from them (Luke 4: 16-21; Acts 2: 16-28). In addition, he fulfilled the Old Testament’s law, and prophecies pertaining to the first advent of the Messiah (Christ): “Do not think that I came to destroy the law or the prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill” (Matthew 5:17). The New Testament books were added to the already existing Old Testament books. They did not replace them. In fact, no one of the prophets before Christ and no one of the apostles and disciples of Christ rewrote any of the books that had been written centuries before his time by other prophets. By contrast, instead of teaching from the Holy Bible, Muhammad redid the entire Bible in what he called the Qur’an which retells biblical stories taken out of context in a distorted anachronistic way. Will you trust the word of one man whose claims to prophethood were neither confirmed nor validated by miracles, and whose morality is questionable at best; against the words of some 44 saintly men who lived godly lives many centuries before him. Their claims of prophethood were confirmed and validated by miracles, and many of them were martyred for proclaiming God’s message? We leave that up to your intelligence and judgment.
2006-12-12 00:02:24 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Since Muhammad was illiterate, He never read the Bible and therefore did not interpret it.
And the Baha'i Faith is no more a "denomination" of Islam than Christianity is a denomination of Judaism.
Peace!
2006-12-13 06:32:33 · answer #2 · answered by world_gypsy 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I see no misinterpretation. If the Holy Bible is so clear as to how and what should be worshiped, why has christianity been segregated into Trinitarianism, monotheism, and a zillion differant sects, some worshipping Jesus as God, some saying he is the son--- Mohammed -may God be pleased with him- was only clearing up the madness created by Paul. Never is anything copied from the Bible-- it is cleared up from it's falsehood.
2006-12-12 07:50:16 · answer #3 · answered by Angelina27 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Actually Islam does recognise that Mohammed was illiterate until he met an angel that told him to read. Since only he saw the angel then he could have imagined the angel and the reading and everything.
Do you have proof that Mohammed actually read anything?
2006-12-12 07:49:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Because the muslims kidnapped a Jewish priest and held him captive in a well until he wrote them a holy book, after which they killed him.
2006-12-12 07:55:40 · answer #5 · answered by miname 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Probably his limited reading capacity. He was a Paedophile and an idiot. Very bad man!
2006-12-12 07:50:13 · answer #6 · answered by booh 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
He wasnt able to read or write!!! How come he could interpret? lack of sense!!!
2006-12-12 07:52:24 · answer #7 · answered by Zifikos 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
he had no reading or writing capabilities at all..
2006-12-12 07:48:13 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
just a bit curious, dear asker; what kind of answer do u want.
2006-12-12 07:48:11 · answer #9 · answered by harri s 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
I heard he was trained by a bishop.
2006-12-12 07:48:07 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋