Some scientists are stating that the disease existed in 1930.
2006-12-11 21:41:25 · 7 answers · asked by fatsausage 7 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Infectious Diseases
I don't think so. There are no recorded cases of it before the 1970's. The virus that now causes HIV might have been around but in a different form and it mutated and now causes HIV. They know that viruses and bacteria are changing all the time.
2006-12-11 21:53:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is indeed possible because you must remember for quite a few years in the west it was probably mis diagnosed which is not unusual for the medical world who only in recent times had the technology to compare data...I can recall over 20 years ago
they were saying it possibly existed since the 1950's and which
once again technology advancing daily it would not surprise me if they discoverer that it existed long before 1930's !!
2006-12-11 21:50:51 · answer #2 · answered by dadacoolone 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably not. HIV/AIDS was only identified in the early 80s but researchers have found one suspected case from back in the late 50s.
For more info call the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's CDC-INFO line at 1-800-232-4636.
2006-12-12 02:12:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
WOW ! That's a bit of an eye opener. It gives you another perspective on things, which i personally will take on board. I don't have enough information yet to form a positive opinion, although what i did hear makes perfect sense to me. I have to agree the bible bashers love the thought of aids ( having sex outside marriage or with a stranger can kill you, homosexuality kills etc etc ). I think you might just get some arguments that aids does indeed exist from them, as like their belief in god, it won't be questioned because they want to believe it's true,and it fits in with their narrow view of life, without acknowledging the facts for and against. I find your links fascinating, and will pass them on in an attempt to find out other peoples views on the subject.
2016-05-23 08:13:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It has been around that long or longer, I bet...as air travel became more popular, spreading disease across a continent became easier.
Remember the bubble boy disease? He had to live in a bubble because of no(?) immune system, I think... around the 70's...even though its not a virus, the symptoms are similar enough it could have mutated from something
prior to that, it was even more uncommon and people suffering from it didn't live long
I think more study is necessary to be sure
2006-12-11 22:01:45 · answer #5 · answered by kimandchris2 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
form an opinionated view... i would think it did. sprouting way back when greeks used to do their slaves whether it be male or female, though they had wives and kids. to when vikings/norseman used to raid villages and rape and kill ... i myself dont understand why it never existed thn, way before the 30's. maybe we didnt have the right resources to test its existence... i mean who knew about pennicilin? most of what we cure ourselves with today and suffer from then, left doctors of way back then in the dark. but what with evolution and all, maybe the next generations have become weaker and more susceptible to such diseases. or no one could give it a name back then... who knows. but i think it did exist then...
PS: anyone know if they had condoms in the thirties?
2006-12-11 21:49:04 · answer #6 · answered by Reb Da Rebel 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yea. Its been around almost as long as humans.
2006-12-11 21:47:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋