The Authorized Version is the one approved by the Roman Catholic Church for use by all Christians, Catholic or not. What became of the other versions, created over a 150 year time period, and why were they not approved by the Vatican?
2006-12-11 17:52:56 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Got the reference to the authorization by the Catholics from a few encyclopedia references, but looking further, I guess it could be said that it was authorized by the man whose man is immortalized by it.
2006-12-11 18:18:19 · update #1
i believe in the Hebrew Bible. there are many translations of it.
2006-12-11 17:58:20 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The King James wasn't approved by the Catholic Church. And the Catholic Church wouldn't approve a Bible for both Christians and Catholics. Catholic Bibles and Christian Bibles are different, with the Catholic Bible containing six more books than the Christian Bible. As for other versions, I myself have a New King James and also a New Authorized version. That makes three versions of the King James that I own.
2006-12-12 01:54:56 · answer #2 · answered by ted.nardo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are quite a few 'apocrypha' books- excluded from the Bible and rightly so. They were written in a time period far after Jesus, NOT by the people who were titled as authoring them, the ywere inconsistent wit hthe other books- regarding times, dates, etc.
I always hear that the American version is the official Catholic and probably the most heavily 'changed' rewritten books available.
Check out the Diaglott, it is the original Greek Bible- before the Catholic Church got their hands on it. It even points out ALL of the changes made in the current bible.
Interesting.
2006-12-12 02:28:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
King James Version was not authorized by catholics.
Its the correct translation of the Holy Bible which was appointed to be read in Church, by King James of Great Britain.
2006-12-12 02:07:02 · answer #4 · answered by Jac Tms 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who have given authority and say it is a WORD of GOD ?
Who Speaks in the Bible? (i.e. the Authority of the Bible)
Unlike the Qur'an which Muslims believe is 100% the inspiration and actual word of God, the Bible contains writings from various authorities. These include:
1. God speaking - Exo.20:2
2. Prophet speaking - Nehemiah 13:30
3. Disciple speaking - I and II Peter
4. Theologian speaking - 1 Corinthans 7:25 & II Corinthans 11:16
5. Unknown author - The whole book of Hebrews
(See Page G17 (Bible Guide) of New International Version published by International Bible Society, Colarado Springs, US, 1984.)
Do we have that True Gospel which Jesus Christ (pbuh) Preached in Hebrew or Aramaic?
Did Jesus (pbuh) asked Matthew, Mark, Luke and John to write these Gospels?
How can Christians rely on the accounts in these Gospels which are the basic Pillars of their Faith?
2006-12-12 01:58:36 · answer #5 · answered by A2Z 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
THE WORD OF GOD IS THE MOST IMPORTANT THING IN THE WHOLE WORLD
Being gathered together as 39 O.T. books 1,110 years.
Done 443 years before Christ in Rome world Empire #6.
Then 50 to 100 years after Christ the 27 N.T. books are done.
History as we know it the KJV Bible 1611 CE published, and available for last days.
The 1620 British Colonies are on soil never organized in world rule, they are from world Empire #7, people of the last days will see the rise of the eighth [ for Satan ],
with his time short, the world is in the last days and 1840 for Mormons and forward for other religions, as apostle Pauls eyesight, KJV did not have to be twenty - twenty.
KJV Bible 1611 CE published plus 303 years to 1914 CE what was available here that was any better?
I just can not believe that prophecy IS NOT TO tell seekers in the last days time period, when they were to have something as important as the word of God.
Since Daniel gives 2300, 2500, 2520, 2580 and 2670, after Babylon Empire #3, what else do seekers need in the last days in harmony with Matt.24:3,7,14,15,22,34,36-38; and Revelations and this is in the King James Version Bible. Follow the activities of Michael and the holy angels dealing with Satan and the unholy angels in these last days, to 1Thes.4:15-17 and in Acts 1:7; the know is not until after Acts 2;1-4; all that is important in 1Thes.5:1-9,21; Jesus does not come as a thief in the night to children of the light of times and seasons, but to worldly it is as in days Of Noah.
The above is bible [ no matter which bible ], there is no guess, but with Prophecy not beyond 2520 and at 2524,"Millions now living will never die." If the days count in prophecy, the years count in prophecy. One problem people do not want, that is the math.
Like seven years tribulations in religions. If it is not scripture, it is not scripture.
In most religions, math is taboo. Most people in religions just do not like math.
Anything that is apart of the word of God is to be loved and appreciated.
Moses dies 897 years after the flood [ but Abraham son #20 to David son #34, Matt.1: 1-17 ]; to world Empire Babylon #3 captivity and son #48, how many years TO SON #48, after the flood? Then the years to son #62 Jesus.
Is this time [ several ways ], in the King James Version Bibles?
It is so easy to figure that Moses was from 857 after the flood, but this is not 1513 BCE, to 897 after the flood, and this is not 1473 BCE.
Joshua 5:6,10,12; went into the next year by days 898, so Judges 11:26; is 1,198 after the flood. 1212 BCE.
Acts 13:20, 21; Samuel is 857 plus 450 years 1307 after the flood is 1103 BCE.
1Kings 6:1; 897 heirs have land to 480 at Solomon and temple is 1,377 after the flood is 1033 BCE, less in 36 years Solomon 1Ki.11:42 [ of 40 ], dies 997 BCE.
King David died 1,373 after the flood at 1037 BCE, less king 40 years is 1333 after the flood and 1077 BCE, less king Saul 40 years 1293 after the flood is 1117 BCE.
I just know that I have studied about 12 KJV Bibles in my life time, have read bible about twenty times, I have studied other translations as well, but the KJV is familiar and makes study easier.
2006-12-12 03:30:59 · answer #6 · answered by jeni 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were likely not as accurate to the oldest available manuscripts concensus (there are thousands of ancient manuscripts and all are almost identical from all over the ancient world where Christians gathered to worship).
2006-12-12 02:01:56 · answer #7 · answered by BigPappa 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the ashes were they burned them until they wrote a version that all could more or less agree upon as all books being conical.
2006-12-12 02:00:23 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Typos, accidental insertions/omissions. It was not an easy task to re-set those old Guttenburg's ya know.
2006-12-12 01:58:17 · answer #9 · answered by revulayshun 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
probably because they were done by protestants
2006-12-12 01:57:58 · answer #10 · answered by chris_muriel007 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋