2006-12-11 11:07:20 · 6 answers · asked by sabrina 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Bible has not been changed that much.
Nowhere in the Bible is there a promise of purity of the text of Scripture throughout history, but there is a great deal of evidence that suggests that the Bibles we read are extremely close to the original, inspired manuscripts that the prophets and apostles wrote. This evidence is seen in the accuracy of the copies that we have. Such reliability helps support our claim that the Bible is valuable as a historical account as well as a revelation from God. Since each testament has its own tradition, we need to deal with them separately.
Unfortunately we only have a few Old Testament manuscripts that date from the tenth century of the Christian era, and only one of these is complete. The good news is that the accuracy of the copies we have is supported by the other evidence. Comparison of the texts shows and astonishing reliability in transmission of the text. Jewish traditions about making copies laid out every aspects of copying texts as if it was a law..Any copy of with just one mistake in it was destroyed.
New Testament evidence is overwhelming. There are 5, 366 manuscripts to compare and draw information from, and some of these date from the second century. Homer's Iliad has only 643 copies. To have such an abundance of copies for the New Testament from dates within 70 years of their writing is amazing.
The Bible in your hand is God talking to you.
2006-12-11 11:12:50 · answer #1 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Bible remains the same. The true word of God remains intact... How could this have happened and when? Are you Muslim? The Torah and the Bible are still the same Torah and Bible that was available to Muhammad and the Qu'ran calls them the true word of God. The reason that Muslims teach that they are corrupt is because they do not agree with the Qu'ran. Let me Show you an example. Why is there a Bible? Because when Jesus came the Jews did not accept him as Messiah or his atonement for sin... Therefore the New Testament was written and it is a part of the Christian scripture. Now if the original Injeel Taught that Christ atoned for sin and the Qu'ran taught that is is the holy word of God as it does then what exactly is corrupted? The fact is the Qu'ran teachs Jesus is not the Son of God and did not die on the cross to atone for sin. So how could the Qu'ran say the Injeel is holy? The Muslims now teach it is corrupt. If the part about Christ atoneing for sin was added then there would be no need for it we would all still be Jews studying the Torah...Which by the way is not corrupt either.
2006-12-11 11:20:22 · answer #2 · answered by djmantx 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The original texts were written in several places, and differed somewhat from each other. Over the last two thousand years, languages have completely changed (read the original Chaucer to get a feel for this, and it's only 700 years old), and new translations are needed from time to time simply to keep up with changes in the languages. (When Hamlet sent Ophelia to a nunnery, he was not talking about a residence for religious women -- he was referring to a whorehouse.) A number of new texts have been discovered since the King James version, and modern translators use these to try to get as close to the original meaning as they can.
2006-12-11 11:14:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
to suit themselves
at that time, people used to think earth is stationary. that's what written in the bible. From the Revised standard edition of the Bible, the word 'begotten' for begotten son (jesus christ) has been thrown out
n so on n onnnnn
N by the way, christians should know that their own christian scholors admit that the true word of god has been played around. They admit that yes, the bible that we have is not the orignal bible.
historical evidence also says that bible has been tempred with.
so it is not the question of being a muslim or a non-muslim. people should also know that the Quran has not been tempered with. Non-muslims veryify this. It is a historical fact!!!
2006-12-11 11:18:22 · answer #4 · answered by Knowledge Seeker 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well they changed it into English so that people could read it for themselves, and over the centuries have just changed it so that pople can understand it .. less thees and thines and shalts etc.
I think it's a good thing. Coz otherwise, at least for the Bible, if we wanted to read it for ourselves we would have had to learn Hebrew!!!
2006-12-11 11:54:07 · answer #5 · answered by bezzy_mack 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because after all those years, they felt their way was better and hence the reformation.
2006-12-11 11:09:15 · answer #6 · answered by Marysia 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋