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http://www.islamalways.com

2006-12-11 10:56:02 · 16 answers · asked by sabrina 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

http:www.islamalways.com

2006-12-11 10:58:59 · update #1

16 answers

Neither is your prophet muhammad, and yet you believe in him. How about that! did you know that?!

Look through out the Bible you not find the word 'grandfather', but you believe in it. Why! Yet we know there were grandfathers in the Bible. Abaham was the grandfather of Jacob. So don't get hung up on the term 'Trinity' itself. What should be of real importance is that the concept that is REPRESENTED by the word 'Trinity' does exist in Scripture.
Can you see that, or is it hard for you to understand what others hold so dear to them, even if you don't agree with them, Live and let live.

The Son is the agent through whom the Father does the following works: 1) the creation and maintenance of the universe (1 Corinthians 8:6; John 1:3; Colossians 1:16-17); 2) divine revelation (John 1:1; Matthew 11:27; John 16:12-15; Revelation 1:1); and 3) salvation (2 Corinthians 5:19; Matthew 1:21; John 4:42). The Father does all these things through the Son, who functions as His agent.

The Holy Spirit is the means by whom the Father does the following works: 1) creation and maintenance of the universe (Genesis 1:2; Job 26:13; Psalm 104:30); 2) divine revelation (John 16:12-15; Ephesians 3:5; 2 Peter 1:21); 3) salvation (John 3:6; Titus 3:5; 1 Peter 1:2); and 4) Jesus' works (Isaiah 61:1; Acts 10:38). Thus the Father does all these things by the power of the Holy Spirit.

Are the above Scripture enough for you! hope that helped.

2006-12-11 11:08:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

Actually, you're only half right. The word 'bible' IS in the Bible. In fact the Bible is in the Bible (that's not intended to be double-talk -- the Bible is self-referencing). 'Bible' comes from the Greek word for 'book', 'biblos'.

W.E. Vine writes, "It ['biblos'] is used in referring to "books of Scripture,..." (Complete Expository Dictionary, p. 74). Many believe that Revelation 20:12 refers to the Bible ("the books were opened").

You're right about 'trinity', however. Not only is it not in the bible, but the concept is extra-biblical. It is completely fictitious -- an invention of men, not a doctrine of God, Jesus, the Apostles or any true Christian. It is an anti-christian doctrine, and contrary to the Gospel of Jesus Christ.

2006-12-11 19:20:34 · answer #2 · answered by BC 6 · 0 1

That is correct. Bi′blos is the Greek term for “book”; its diminutive form bi·bli′on (literally, little book) is rendered “book. The Bible is indeed made up of little books. ""Trinity" is another matter. Not only is the word not in the Bible, but the concept is not there either. According to the doctrine, God is made up of 3 coequal, coeternal "persons." There is not a single verse in the Bible that says 3 coequal "persons" make up God. Go ahead and look. IT'S NOT THERE!

2006-12-11 19:28:04 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1 1

The Bible is the sacred book of Christianity, a collection of ancient writings including the books of both the Old and New Testaments. The trinity, nor the idea of a trinity, are, nor can be, found in the original texts.

2006-12-11 19:12:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

The word "Trinity" is merely a description of God's triune nature, composed of God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. The fact that the word "trinity" doesn't appear is not the issue; it is the CONCEPT that appears in the Bible (which means "book.") Although God is One Being, He has three distinctly separate natures. I know, this sounds contradictory, but this is why the Church calls this a "mystery."

The Trinity can be found starting at the beginning of the Bible all the way to the end. However, the fact of God's Triune nature wasn't completely clear until Jesus Christ (God the Son) came to earth.

Here's some Scriptural support for the Trinity:

1) The word translated as "God" in our Bibles is the Hebrew word "Elohiym," which is a pleural word meaning "Gods."

2) God refers to Himself in the pleural; see Genesis 1:26a. There is no evidence this is the "royal we," as some try to argue.

3) There are instances in the Bible where God the Father speaks to God the Son (Jesus Christ, a.k.a. The Word). In Psalm 45:6-7, the writer states: "Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A scepter of equity is the scepter of your kingdom. You have loved righteousness, and hated wickedness: Therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness above your fellows." Notice that the word God is actually applied to two different Persons within these two verses. He is addressing God, and after addressing God, he says that another God had anointed the first God with the oil of gladness above "your" fellows. It should be noted that in this verse the first Elohim is being addressed. The second Elohim is the God of the first Elohim. Therefore, it is God’s God who has anointed Him with the oil of gladness. Another example may be found at Hosea 1:7.

4) Then there are Scriptural sources that reference ALL THREE Persons of the Trinity: Father, Son and Spirit:

Isaiah 42:1 "Behold, my [Father] servant [Son], whom I uphold; my chosen, in whom my soul delights: I have put my Spirit [Holy Spirit] upon him; he will bring forth justice to the Gentiles."

The first Person is the speaker, who is seen by the pronouns "my" and "I." The second Person is the speaker's "servant," the servant of Jehovah. And the third Person is the "Spirit" of God. Scripture repeatedly identifies Jesus Christ as God the Father's "Servant."

Isaiah 61:1 is a second example:

"The Spirit [person #1] of the Lord Jehovah [person # 2] is upon me [person # 3]; because Jehovah has anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he has sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;…" Again, there are three individuals: the Lord Jehovah; the Spirit of Jehovah; and the speaker ("me"). We know from Luke 4:18 that the person referring to Himself as "Me" is Jesus Christ.

There is MUCH more proof of the Trinity in the Bible. However, this is not the forum for such an extensive discussion. If you want more information, send me a message through YA and I'd be happy to send it to you.

Peace.

2006-12-11 19:03:35 · answer #5 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 1 2

Yes, I know that .

The word Trinity is a theological construct which theologians devised to refer to God: The Father, Son and Holy Spirit. It just makes it easier to talk about some things when a single word is used. Instead of saying "God: the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit".

2006-12-11 19:04:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Why would they be?
Did you know that the words u and kw are not even in the English language?

(Last I heard, u and kw were abbreviations for unit and kilowatt.)

2006-12-11 19:03:35 · answer #7 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 0 1

You're right, but the word Scripture is and so is the concept of the Trinity.

2006-12-11 19:35:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

In Jesus dwells ALL the fullness of the Godhead bodily (Col.2:9 below) -

oGod the Father
oThe Holy Spirit of God the Father
oThe Word of God the Father

The only begotten son of God the Father (Jn.1:14 below), Jesus (the Word - Jn.1:1, Jn.1:14 below), His beloved Son (Matt.3:17 below), was conceived of the Holy Ghost (Matt.1:20 below).

It is God the Father who conceived in Mary (blessed among women) His very Word through His very Holy Spirit (Matt.1:20 below).


Col.2:9 For in him dwelleth ALL the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Jn.1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, (Matt.1:20, Matt.3:17 below)) full of grace and truth.

Jn.1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (Re.1:6, Lk.1:47 below).

Re.1:6And hath made us kings and priests unto God (Jn.1:1 above) AND his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

Lk.1:47And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour (Jn.1:14, Jn.1:1, Re.1:6 above).

Lk.1:68 Blessed [be] the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,

Matt.3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son (Matt.1:20 below), in whom I am well pleased.

Matt.1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost (Jn.1:14, Matt.3:17 above).



Pat (ndbpsa ©)

2006-12-11 21:51:31 · answer #9 · answered by BibleProphecyOnTheWeb 5 · 0 0

i heard the trinity was explained like 300 years after the death of jesus peace and blessings be upon him is that true?

ha ha ha how arrogant both responses... i wasnt being sarcastic i was jus simply asking... but thats wot happenss when people have noo answer how immature u both really are

2006-12-11 18:59:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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