Matthew 5:31
Moreover it was said 'Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce. 32, However, I say to YOU that except on account of fornication, makes her a subject for adultry, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
my question is... would god say such thing? :/
2006-12-10 05:05:41 · 21 answers · asked by who_knows 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
of course noooooooooooooooooooooooo
2006-12-10 05:08:13 · answer #1 · answered by evening_dewpoint 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Perhaps IF YOU WANT AN HONEST answer, you should See what GOD, says in His Word, and not what the WORLD, AND HOLLYWOOD, tell Us To DO!
(Luke 16:15-to-18) And he said unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God.
(Luke 16:16) The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
(Luke 16:17) And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.
(Luke 16:18) Whosoever DIVORCES his wife, and marrieth another, Committeth Adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is DIVORCED from her husband committeth adultery.
Perhaps a visit to my Home Page, link on my Blog, and you will Find MORE Verses!
There is a Command for the WOMAN and the MAN, concerning DIVORCE in 1Corinthians 7:10-11 and Mark 10:11-12.
Thanks, RR
2006-12-10 13:32:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't believe it either. Take into account that the bible was written by men when women were considered property and traded like livestock. Does the verse say anything about the husband comitting adultery. I'm a man by the way.
2006-12-10 13:11:28 · answer #3 · answered by mykl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. At its core, the foundation for this particular text (if you compare it with its counterparts in the other Gospels) is a discourse on forgiveness. The basis for all TRUE Christianity is love/forgiveness, and the point of this bit of Scripture is that love/forgiveness is preferable to divorce in all cases.
Please note that the precepts outlined in the Bible are intended for the guidance of those who are interested in being Christians -- not for unbelievers.
2006-12-10 13:25:07 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fornication = adultery. And Yes, apparently He did. I can see no other interpretation. Why would ask such a silly question? Do you not study?
2006-12-10 13:41:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, and for those who do the opposite they get AIDS, VD, bastard kids, forced abortion, abandoned kids, and other problems associated with sex without the discipline of a monagmous married relationship.
He also warns that you are better off not being married cause it will be difficult to get along but marry if you can't control your sexual appetite.
Your home, bank, car maintenance, driving, computer use, town, city, state, country, and world all have rules. Why suddenly it sounds to weird for you for marriage to have rules?
2006-12-10 13:22:58 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is in the bible...adultery is the ground for marriage where the innocent party is allowed to remarry. _As much as possible, couples are encouraged to remain married...but other problems aside from adultery comes up...when life is endangered or when the man does not provide for the family, a woman could also divorce him but could not remarry.
2006-12-10 13:24:32 · answer #7 · answered by Tomoyo K 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the bible says, basicly thatyou need proof of divorce before you marry some one else, and that if you mary somebody else who is divorced because -loss of intrest- has occures than you are comitting adultury.But the only excuse for divorce is if one spouse is cheating on the other ect.
2006-12-10 13:55:08 · answer #8 · answered by yo 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i know that verse is in the bible to to say that it is correct i have no idea i know in islam there is no sin for a man or women to marry a divorced women and plus it is encourage to marry to those who your eyes are attracted too .BUT it has to be within the folds of islam the proper way there is a chapter in the quran that is dedicated to the women it is called an-nisa(the women).and another part of your question if there is a muslim it is forbidden for him/her it is forbidden for them marry a pure person .a fornicator has to marry a fornicator .inless they expell themselve from that society for 1 yr and repentant then after that he/she would be allowed to marry a pure person(a non-fornicator)
2006-12-10 13:14:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
My question is how is marrying a divorced woman adultery?She's divorced!
2006-12-10 13:11:42 · answer #10 · answered by Vtmtnman 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe it was because in that day, man had cheapened divorce so if the wife burnt the supper - that was grounds -
divorce was so frivolous
2006-12-10 13:09:13 · answer #11 · answered by tom4bucs 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋