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I was just wondering..In america do they pronounce the final letter of the alphabet(Z) as Zi or zed?? and if they sau zi, is it odd if they heard someone say zed??

2006-12-09 23:35:12 · 15 answers · asked by Maryanni 2 in Society & Culture Languages

15 answers

We say "zee"... and I can't speak for all, but many are well aware of the British (and Canadian) pronuncation as "zed".

Here's some clarification:

As so many discussions of "British vs. American English" this debate tends to be driven by incorrect historical information (often just assumptions).

1) The pronunciation "zee" was NOT an "American invention". It was part of a 17th dialect brought over by English colonists; the form later died out in England. This pronunciation may be found in a British school book of the time -- Lye’s New Spelling Book (1677).

(There were, in fact, other dialectal names for the letter, including "zad", "zard", "ezod", "izod, "izzard" and "uzzard".)

2) There's a rather simple, logical reason for the pronunciation "zee". This pattern focuses on the SOUND the letter represents, which is precisely what MOST of the English alphabet was already doing by this point (just buzz through them... nearly all do this!). In fact, in light of this, "zee" is rather unsurprising. What is much more interesting is how English ended up with a "zed".

The explanation for that: "z" did not adopt the pattern (and become "zee") along with other letters for the simple historical reason that the letter was a LATE-comer to English -- which is why it is at the END of the alphabet. It was introduced, with the name "zed", from Middle French, but ultimately goes back through Latin to Greek "zeta".

(This sort of name is quite common for the Greek alphabet which, WITH many of its names, was based on the Phoenician -- "alpha" is for the Semitic "aleph", "beta" for "beth", etc. The names of letters in Phoenician, Hebrew, etc., used WORDS beginning with the sounds, rather than just the sound. "Zeta" then --along with beta, eta, theta-- echoes some Semitic letter names, such as beth and tet.)

3) Though pt #1 should already make this clear, Noah Webster did not "decree" the pronunciation "zee". Though his work was quite influential, the vast majority of his suggestions were NOT adopted (and he later backed away from many). The spelling choices and changes he supported that succeeded (many of which others had argued for before him) -- as well as the pronunciation "zee"-- were generally accepted because they had more general support and seemed to people to make SENSE.

4) The REASON for Webster and others preferring "zee", as well as certain spelling variations (some new, some old) was NOT "simply to be different" from the British. Webster was a teacher and wanted to make changes that 'made sense' for the children being taught.

It is true that Webster argued in part on the basis of the superiority of a "republican" approach (thus preferring American to British), but from there he argued more that we ought not simply to do spell something a particular way because some social ELITE (British aristocracy in this case) has so decreed. (Do note that a number of the spelling reforms Webster advocated had supporters in Britain as well; they were simply less successful in carrying it out!)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noah_Webster
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spelling_differences

2006-12-09 23:47:33 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 3 1

We pronounce it as Zi and the British pronounce it as Zed. There is no problem with both the American can understand Zed and the British can understand Zi. :)

2006-12-10 05:22:35 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yup, I'm from England and teach English in Korea. The Yanks pronounce it "Zi" and are usually shocked to hear we Brits pronounce it "Zed". It doesn't fit the song.

2006-12-09 23:47:01 · answer #3 · answered by Paul E 2 · 1 0

Most Americans are unaware that anyone at all would ever pronounce it 'zed,' besides those who learn French.

Americans thus pronounce it 'zee,' and most would have absolutely no clue what one was talking about when they heard 'zed.' It would be like sneaking in a word in Aramaic in a sentence to them.

2006-12-10 01:09:54 · answer #4 · answered by Maitreya 3 · 0 1

It is of no consequence how the americans pronounce anything in English. The English Language although obviously the official language of England is NOT the official language of the states. They don't have one apparently! They very recently decided (about 200 years late, but then again as we have seen in 2 world wars, they have a habit of doing everything at the last minute) to adopt English as a "unifying" language. Don't ask me what it is all about, that's just the way it is. The argument here is that the americans can have no sway on the correct pronounciation or spelling of English - it is not theirs to do so.

2006-12-10 00:02:29 · answer #5 · answered by Raymo 6 · 0 2

Americans say Zee and if they hear you say zed most would just know that you1re not american

2006-12-09 23:46:12 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

the yanks say zed like zee.

if they heard a brit or anyone say zed, they would probabbly guess you weren't from there, but it also might confuse them as science has proven that they have genuinely smaller brains.

lol

2006-12-10 00:11:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

zed ... zee ... zai ... its all the same its just the last letter of the alphabets :)

2006-12-09 23:54:21 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

they pronounce it as zi, some people consoder it as odd while others dont

2006-12-09 23:47:47 · answer #9 · answered by MARY A 1 · 1 1

zee to americans zed to us brits see websters dictionary and prepare to be amazed at how they have raped and abused the english language lol

2006-12-09 23:40:02 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4 3

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