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2006-12-09 16:42:45 · 16 answers · asked by MUHAMMAD 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

16 answers

Jesus Christ is infallible. "Heaven and Earth shall pass away, but My words shall never pass away." (Matthew 24:35)
With regards to the response of Lawman, the death that Jesus was speaking of was separation from God, which is death indeed. Compare Matthew 22:29-32, where Jesus refuting the arrogance of the Sadducees says: "You are greatly mistaken, understanding neither the Scriptures nor the power of God. For in the resurrection they neither marry or are given in marriage, but are like the angels in heaven. But regarding the resurrection of the dead, have you not read that which was spoken to you by God, saying "I am the God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob? He is not the God of the dead, but of the living" "
This is also clearly brought out in John 11:25,26 where He says "I am the resurrection and the life; he who believes in Me shall live even if he dies, and everyone who lives and believes in Me shall never die. Do you believe this?"
Sadly, the dead do not understand the Word of God, because these things are spiritually appraised.

2006-12-09 17:12:28 · answer #1 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 0 1

Infallible

2006-12-09 16:47:52 · answer #2 · answered by idahomike2 6 · 1 0

His real call substitute into Yahoshua [or stated Yeshua as some could declare]. the fashionable call resembling this you're able to be Joshua. The Testaments, eyewitness bills of folk of those situations that are recorded, say that He substitute into born in the barn of the domicile of a Baker [Ba'it'lehem which in Hebrew interprets because of the fact the domicile of a Baker, aka Bethlehem]. His Hebrew call could have been Yahoshua ben Yosef el Nazrany or Joshua, son of Joseph of Nazareth. There are some who declare that city of Nazareth did no longer exist then, yet, I wasn't around at that element to argue for or against that. Yahoshua substitute into an Essene, and their place substitute into called Nasserath. The call Jesus got here from the mispronunciation of that call by employing the Romans [Latin] as is evidenced in the scroll analyzing INRI above His head in the circulate which stands for Isaevs Nazaraenvs Rex Ivodorvm. Or Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews. This further evidences that there substitute right into a city called Nazareth there as do the the various cities unique in the old testomony. no be counted if He substitute into the Son of God or a trifling Prophet, is a topic of debate as is the declare to what He substitute into and per probability in Heaven. i'm sorry, yet, no guy or woman who has been there has come back to let us know approximately this subject. in my opinion, i do no longer see how i ought to even start to talk approximately Him 2009 years after the shape. what's obtainable from the documents, i will say exist. the rest is empty hypothesis. Akela, the Lone Wolf

2016-12-18 10:40:55 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Actually Jesus wasn't totally infallible. There are examples in the Bible where jesus get angry because people are gambling on the temple ground. He was a human being just like us. I dont' get why people think he would be perfect. He was a carpenter, do they assume he hit every nail in perfectly everytime or that he never injured his finger. Some people follow so blindly.

2006-12-09 16:47:05 · answer #4 · answered by HOVO 3 · 0 1

Rightly or wrongly, we hold to innocent until proven guilty. Pilate tried to get Jesus off 3 times because he was innocent.
That is innocence. Hard to maintain innocence and be fallible. AND...still innocent until proven guilty. Infallible until proven otherwise.
You hint at another good question, however: Can a fallible person prove the infallible fallible?

2006-12-09 16:54:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Jesus is infallible God incarnate. And him being a false prophet that was stupidity you were talking.That was a prophecy he made if you study the Bible you know that we are going to be resurrected and then he will come after that amaggedon.Study dont look dumb.

2006-12-09 16:56:51 · answer #6 · answered by lightangellion 3 · 0 1

infallible, Thank you Jesus !

2006-12-09 16:50:52 · answer #7 · answered by don_steele54 6 · 0 0

Well, in these verses, we discover that Jesus is a false prophet and a liar. How do these labels fall into infallible?

esus lied to his very own servants which also proves himself a false prophet as well. This can be easily seem in Matthew 16:27-28 and Mark 8:38-9:1:

Matthew: "16:27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works. 28 Verily I say unto you. There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom."
Mark: " 8:38 Whosoever therefore be ashamed of me and my words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he cometh in the glory of his Father with the holy angels. 9:1 And he said unto them. Verily I say unto you. That there be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death, til they have seen the kingdom of God come with power."
The fact of the matter is Judgment Day did not come before these people died. It has never come yet. And these people are long DEAD. They never lived to see Judgment Day come unto man. No god came with his flock of angels bringing mankind to judgment and heaven. Jesus simply lied. Not only that, but this was a future prophecy he told at the time. This makes Jesus not only a liar, but a false prophet as well.

2006-12-09 16:48:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

infallable

2006-12-09 16:45:46 · answer #9 · answered by Thumbs down me now 6 · 1 0

What's the point of the question?

Jesus is the Son of the one true God.

2006-12-09 16:45:14 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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