no, the King of Egypt did.
Exodus 1:8-22
Moses was born during the time that all Isreal baby boys were to be killed, and, as a prophet of God, he was spared.
Exodus 2:3-10
2006-12-09 09:31:37
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answer #1
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answered by A Light to Burn All the Empires♥ 3
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No way. the pheroe instructed the midwifes to kill all mail Hebrew baby's at the time of moses birth. and when moses was old he told pheroe God would kill all the first born if pheroe did not let them Go. the Israelites were saved by putting the blood of a lamb on their door post the first pass over. Jesus was the final lamb of God. any way when it says first born it does not mean baby's it means the eldest child of each family even a son of 40 after that the Egyptians begged them to leave.
2006-12-09 17:32:26
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answer #2
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answered by Mim 7
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no but the old testament is a sick, pagan text of full of this kind of crap and it is NOT to be taken seriously. - READ THIS!
Dear Dr. Laura,
Thank you for doing so much to educate people regarding God's Law. I have learned a great deal from your show, and I try to share that knowledge with as many people as I can. When someone tries to defend the homosexual lifestyle, for example, I simply remind him that Leviticus 18:22 clearly states it to be an abomination. End of debate.
I do need some advice from you, however, regarding some of the specific laws and how to best follow them.
a) When I burn a bull on the altar as a sacrifice, I know it creates a pleasing odor for the Lord (Lev 1:9). The problem is my neighbors. They claim the odor is not pleasing to them. Should I smite them?
b) I would like to sell my daughter into slavery, as sanctioned in Exodus 21:7. In this day and age, what do you think would be a fair price for her?
c) I know that I am allowed no contact with a woman while she is in her period of menstrual uncleanliness (Lev 15:19-24). The problem is, how do I tell? I have tried asking, but most women take offense.
d) Lev. 25:44 states that I may indeed possess slaves, both male and female, provided they are purchased from neighboring nations. A friend of mine claims that this applies to Mexicans, but not Canadians. Can you clarify? Why can't I own Canadians?
e) I have a neighbor who insists on working on the Sabbath. Exodus 35:2 clearly states he should be put to death. Am I morally obligated to kill him myself?
f) A friend of mine feels that even though eating shellfish is an Abomination (Lev 11:10), it is a lesser abomination than homosexuality. I don't agree. Can you settle this?
g) Lev 21:20 states that I may not approach the altar of God if I have a defect in my sight. I have to admit that I wear reading glasses. Does my vision have to be 20/20, or is there some wiggle room here?
h) Most of my male friends get their hair trimmed, including the hair around their temples, even though this is expressly forbidden by Lev 19:27. How should they die?
i) I know from Lev 11:6-8 that touching the skin of a dead pig makes me unclean, but may I still play football if I wear gloves?
j) My uncle has a farm. He violates Lev 19:19 by planting two different crops in the same field, as does his wife by wearing garments made of two different kinds of thread (cotton/polyester blend). He also tends to curse and blaspheme a lot. Is it really necessary that we go to all the trouble of getting the whole town together to stone them? (Lev 24:10-16) Couldn't we just burn them to death at a private family affair like we do with people who sleep with their in-laws? (Lev. 20:14)
I know you have studied these things extensively, so I am confident you can help.
Thank you again for reminding us that God's word is eternal and unchanging.
Your devoted disciple and adoring fan.
2006-12-09 17:39:36
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answer #3
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answered by larry s 3
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Not exactly, but after his army had slaughtered all the Midian men, Moses did order the killing of all Midian children and pregnant women, with the exception of 32,000 virgin women and girls. He awarded these to his military leaders.
2006-12-09 18:11:52
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answer #4
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answered by HarryTikos 4
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Numbers 31:17 (Moses) “Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every women that hath known man by lying with him.” In other words: women that might be pregnant.
You can verify it by looking it up yourself.
2006-12-09 17:36:34
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answer #5
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answered by Zen Pirate 6
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i cant tell you a straight answer. i think the best thing for you to do is actually look it up in the bible, just taking peoples word for it might not be best.
2006-12-09 19:26:03
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answer #6
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answered by A17 2
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No, but you'll get probably 10 people who never read the Bible say it does because some godisimaginary.com site said so.
2006-12-09 17:31:40
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answer #7
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answered by impossble_dream 6
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When Herod heard that Jesus was born, he ordered all of the new-born males to be killed. (Because he would be the next king)
2006-12-09 17:33:41
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answer #8
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answered by shermynewstart 7
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I have not heard that. There is no where in the bible that says that abortion is a sin.
2006-12-09 17:31:08
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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no it wasnt moses and it was boys under the age of 2,,,,
2006-12-09 17:38:31
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answer #10
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answered by Sweetness 5
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