2006-12-09 09:19:50 · 5 answers · asked by ___ 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes!
(Matthew 8:14) 14 And Jesus, on coming into Peter’s house, saw his mother-in-law lying down and sick with fever.
In either case celibacy was not a requirement for "Bishops" in the first century.
(1 Timothy 3:1-2) . . .If any man is reaching out for an office of overseer, he is desirous of a fine work. 2 The overseer should therefore be irreprehensible, a husband of one wife. . .
It didnt become a requirement until many years later and then it represented an apostasy of the "Way"
(1 Timothy 4:1-3) 4 However, the inspired utterance says definitely that in later periods of time some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to misleading inspired utterances and teachings of demons, 2 by the hypocrisy of men who speak lies, marked in their conscience as with a branding iron; 3 forbidding to marry, commanding to abstain from foods which God created to be partaken of with thanksgiving by those who have faith and accurately know the truth.
This is how the Bible portrays God's feelings about marriage in regards to those with oversight in the congregation.
(1 Corinthians 7:36) But if anyone thinks he is behaving improperly toward his virginity, if that is past the bloom of youth, and this is the way it should take place, let him do what he wants; he does not sin. Let them marry.
(1 Corinthians 9:5) We have authority to lead about a sister as a wife, even as the rest of the apostles and the Lord’s brothers and Ce´phas, do we not?
(Hebrews 13:4) Let marriage be honorable among all, and the marriage bed be without defilement, for God will judge fornicators and adulterers.
Oh, and Cephas was Peter so it stands to reason that he was married at the time. Not widowed.
2006-12-09 09:23:01 · answer #1 · answered by Hirameku 1 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Simon Peter asked Jesus to come to his house and help his mother-in-law who was ill. If he had a mother-in-law he had to be married.
2006-12-09 09:23:53 · answer #2 · answered by karen wonderful 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes, since Jesus healed Peter's mother-in-law, he would have to be married to have a mother-in-law.
2006-12-09 09:21:59 · answer #3 · answered by Felicitas 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
He could have been. But he also could have been a widower at the time that he was called to be an apostle (bishop).
2006-12-09 09:22:43 · answer #4 · answered by Life 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes.
2006-12-09 09:27:44 · answer #5 · answered by Lives7 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋