1 Corinthians 1:16 says that Stephanas' entire household was baptized. Picture the following scenario:
"I don't care what you and the kids believe, or even whether the baby can make that decision, we are all going to get baptized. I'm in charge of this house, and I make the rules, and we will all be marked as God's property."
"Okay, dear, whatever. I'll go get the baby."
Does this validate infant baptism? If so, what about servants and others that the head of the house "owned"?
2006-12-09 05:26:34 · 3 answers · asked by ccrider 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It certainly lends credence....but....
Besides all of the Biblical references (of which I will not bore you here - they are legion) - there is the simple fact that this was always the practice of the Early Church.
Those who deny infant baptism have a problem. They must explain why the fathers of the Church's first centuries speak of infant baptism as a universal custom. The Fathers is what we now call Pastors who led the Church after the death of the apostles. When we examine the writings of Irenaeus (d. 202), Tertullian (d. 240), Origen (d. 254), Cyprian (d. 258), and Augustine (d. 430), we see that they all spoke of infant baptism as accepted custom (though Tertullian disagreed with it).
Irenaeus remarks, "For He came to save all through means of Himself all, I say, who through Him are born again to God, infants, and children, and boys, and youths, and old men" (Against Heresies, Book 1, Ch. 22.4).
2006-12-09 05:32:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 7⤋
Yor're making a lot of assumptions.
You assume there were babies.
You're assuming that only Stephanas believed and made the decision to be baptized and that they didn't all decide among themselves.
There are several bible examples where whole houses believed. Obviously an infant can't believe. Faith comes from hearing the word of God (Rom 10:17), so for a whole house to believe and thus obey, they must all hear and understand.
Jesus said "HE that believes and is baptized shall be saved" (Mark 16:16). We can conclude therefore that if everyone in a household was saved, then they each must have heard, each believed, and each were baptized. This eliminates the presence of infants in that family that were "saved".
2006-12-09 14:16:42 · answer #2 · answered by JoeBama 7 · 5⤊ 1⤋
No!!!!! Infant baptism was not practiced by the first century Christan's. Acts 2:41 "those who embraced the word heartily were baptized" Baptism always proceeded taking in knowledge and exercising faith. Also baptism was always a full immersion, not a sprinkling. Acts 8:12, Acts 8:36-38, Mark 1:9,10, Acts 8:38, Acts 8:12-Hope this helps
2006-12-09 16:22:25 · answer #3 · answered by nicky 3 · 4⤊ 1⤋