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I asked this question a while ago but didn't get a good enough answer
Have you ever hear of 'the Epic of Gilgamesh'? well it is a mesopotaimian story about a hero in the city of Uruk. it was written BEFORE the bible. but takes place IN biblical times. however they constantly refer to MANY gods.
The epic of gilgamesh was written AFTER the flood too. genisis' version is practically copied from Gilgamesh. and we know it is true because wasn't adam froma ctiy that sounds somewhat like uruk?

what i don't understand is :

if god created everything then we should have known since the beginning that there was only ONE god right?
so how come this book that was written in early biblical times BUT BEFORE THE BIBLE mentions other gods and goddesses?

and PLEASE don't cut and paste sections from the bible, i doubt it will help much as it is the bible i am questioning.
if you think there is a really relevant passage please just tell me where in the bible and put in a web link

2006-12-09 03:36:53 · 18 answers · asked by unknown 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

'greg'
your crazy

i do agree that the bible and gilgamesh both have some truth, but i still want to know why the bible states that there was only one god when at the time and place of where things suchas the flood, and the tower of bable, and the garden of eden even occured people worshiped many gods

2006-12-09 03:49:32 · update #1

the book of genisis to which i am refering, was written in 1450 - 1410 BCE
the epic of gilgamesh was written between 2750 and 2500 BCE

2006-12-09 03:57:15 · update #2

18 answers

God is God.
People created false gods to worship to do what they wanted to do. Paul said that they knew that God existed, but ignored him and worshiped idols instead.
Gilgamesh is interesting, in that it is an epic that chronicles a worldwide flood. But, there are many different flood stories from all over the world.
What does this mean? It means that the flood most likely happened, and that Gilgamesh, the Bible and other sources are just a collection of collective memories of an event that occurred long go.

2006-12-09 03:44:14 · answer #1 · answered by . 7 · 1 1

Genesis is inerrant: it is completely truthful and contained no error in its original form. God inspired Moses to write the book and preserved him from including any errors. Thus the Noahic flood really happened exactly as stated in Genesis. The similarities between the Babylonian and Hebrew texts were probably caused by two factors: both were accounts of the same worldwide flood.
The Genesis account is absolutely true and was written during the Exodus of the Jewish people from Egypt. The Babylonian account was written later; its author may have copied elements from the Hebrew story.

"The Epic of Gilgamesh, then, contains the corrupted account as preserved and embellished by peoples who did not follow the God of the Hebrews." 7

Which Came First Noah or Ut-Napishtim?
The Babylonian tablets which contain the full story of the flood have been dated circa 650 BCE. However, portions of the story have been found on tablets from about 2000 BCE. A study of the language used in the tablets indicates that the story originated much earlier than 2000 BCE. 3 Variations of the original story have been found translated into other ancient languages. 4

Many conservative Christians believe that the flood occurred in 2349 BCE, and that the account in Genesis was written by Moses in the 1450's BCE, shortly before his death. 5,8 Thus, the Babylonian text must be a corrupted version based on a Paganized adaptation of the true story in Genesis. Alternatively, it might be an independent attempt at describing the world-wide flood.

2006-12-09 04:11:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Many ancient societies have a flood story, the Assyrians were not the only ones. Many things were written before the 'Bible', mostly on either clay tablets, or carved in stone, but that in and of itself does not make them true, or even accurate. What if that special about Gilgamesh is wrong? The Hebrews had a verbal history, not a written one, until Moses wrote the first five books of what has come to be known as the Bible. Just because someone wrote something down first does not mean that they are correct.

2006-12-09 03:56:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1. You do not "know" that the Bible was copied from the epic of Gilgamesh. You only know that they are similar. There are more than 40 different flood accounts from different cultures around the world.
2. You forget that in the Hebrew account of origins there was only one God and he destroyed the world. 1500 years after the flood people were worshiping many gods.
3. You also forget original sin and Satan. Where do you suppose all these different religions come from.

You have questions that you should have been able to answer yourself. But I think you are not looking for the truth here , just an argument.

2006-12-09 03:48:37 · answer #4 · answered by Desperado 5 · 0 0

Your assuming that worship of the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob did not occur until after Moses wrote the Bible. You are also assuming that prior to the flood everyone believed one thing, clearly that is a misunderstanding of why the flood happened.

By your logic Greek and Roman mythology has a higher precedent than Christianity because the myths written before the gospels.

2006-12-09 03:48:42 · answer #5 · answered by phoenix_slayer2001uk 2 · 0 0

I admire your curiosity. There are tons of books that actually used to be in the Bible that were taken out. The Bible is nothing more than a translation of scriptures that were written thousands of years ago in the ancient Greek and Hebrew, and many of those books no longer exist in the Bible. There is a lot of literature that existed before any Bible was published that referred to several Gods, but the Bible is quite unique.

It is a book of symbols that no one writer at any given time could have possibly known of in the books written before his time. Yet all these books come together in perfect harmony, a feat nobody, including myself, can understand or explain, other than concluding that the Bible is Divine.

2006-12-09 03:43:42 · answer #6 · answered by billy d 5 · 0 0

The reason for multiple gods would be mans separation from God by sin. Because man has a built in need to worship, then man had to make up something. And it is possible that Man worshiped the giants that the Bible talks about. If the giants were the product of human and demon interaction, then the demon part would desire worship.

2006-12-09 03:45:26 · answer #7 · answered by RB 7 · 1 0

Deuteronomy 4:35
1 Kings 8:60
Isaiah 44:8

2006-12-09 03:46:38 · answer #8 · answered by padwinlearner 5 · 0 0

People are GOOD at manufacturing gods. Just look at our current crop of sports, music, movie, and other stars. Then look at all the money we donate to these gods! Many if not all of the early gods simply represented various aspects of nature, either physical or human. Is it really surprising that we still know about some of the ancient 'gods'?

Can you imagine the fun archaeologists will have with Ronald Reagan? Actor AND President??? That'll surely fox 'em!

2006-12-09 03:48:21 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

gilgamesh was not stolen from the bible. Noahs story more than likely was taken from the gilgamesh story, just like the birth narrative. It's allegory anyways to explain Esoteric elements of self and life. All I can say is negation of reason is the only way someone can believe these stories for literal history.

2006-12-09 03:46:23 · answer #10 · answered by Automaton 5 · 1 1

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