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There are a few concepts that explain the REQUIREMENT that Mary be totally free from sin, in order to be the mother of our redeemer.

1) If Mary's spirit had been tainted by sin, than her flesh would have also been tainted by sin. Jesus was made from Mary's flesh. Any sin of hers would have then attached to Jesus. This would make his mission an instant failure before it even began, as the only way Jesus could redeem us was as a holy and spotless (sinless) sacrificial victim.

2) When the angel Gabriel announced God's intention to conceive Jesus in her womb, Gabriel used words indicating that Mary was ALREADY highly favored ... and FULL of grace.

Full is an absolute term. Grace is the in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit in a human soul. And since every other human being since Adam and Eve had been born stained by original sin, and lacking God's sanctifying grace, this could mean only one thing ... Mary was indeed sinless ... by privilege of God ... and specifically for God's purpose of sending his son into the world as a sinless and perfect man.

3) The apostles and disciples knew Mary well. She was with them when the Holy Spirit descended on Pentecost. She lived in the care of St. John for many years, until her dormition. The church, through apostolic and sacred tradition (which the Bible applauds, as opposed to FALSE tradition, which it derides) always knew the truth of Jesus Christ, as well as all the other truths which were directly linked to his incarnation, sacrifical death, our redemption, and his resurrection.

It can be truthfully stated that ALL the apostles and disciples knew that Mary was conceived without sin, that she in fact, never sinned, and that she had been specially privileged by God in order to become not only the Mother of God, but the first, best, and most constant disciple of Jesus Christ.

The Apostles Creed, one of the earliest prayers of the church, confirms all this to be a fact.

Sinlesslness makes perfect sense for one who was overshadowed by the power of the Holy Spirit, who carried God inside her for three quarters of a year, and then personally and constantly dwelled with him for another thirty years.

Some say that since this is not expressly stated in the bible than we shouldn't accept it, yet the Bible itself says that many, many things are not included in scripture.

The Bible also records Jesus Christ giving power and authority to the men he chose to govern his church, and then commanding those men to go out and teach what they knew about Jesus to the whole world.

Jesus never specified any particular method of teaching. And since the Bible wouldn't even be written and compiled for another 300 years or so, looking to the Bible for this type of information is rather shortsighted and decidedly UNBIBLICAL!

If Mary was not conceived without sin, Jesus could not be born without sin, either.

If Jesus was born stained by sin, his mission of redemption would have been over before it even began, because sin of any kind is a disqualifying factor for Messiah.

In short, if Mary was not conceived without sin, than Christ's suffering and death was pointless and ineffective, and we are all still trapped in our sins and destined only for hell.

2006-12-08 16:14:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

the place is it got here across? Catholics do not carry via Sola Scriptura, that is from Luther and that's Protestantism. they have a church doctrine and church custom and much extra historic past and study then the Protestants might desire to ever wish for. you're evaluating almost 2,000 years of custom, sturdy or undesirable, with the final 500 years of not something yet wars and contention. So this is Roman Catholic (and jap Orthodox) custom that Mary grow to be sinless, because of the fact that thought a suitable person could have had to come back from a suitable mom. that is what befell every time humanity is deified. The questions quickly do away with the possibility of that occuring and a few unusual thoughts upward push up. "mom, dad, i'm pregnant, and a deity did it!" How mythological.

2016-12-13 05:30:21 · answer #2 · answered by glynis 4 · 0 0

Today is the feast of the Immaculate Conception, a great solemnity of the Catholic Church. Every Catholic true to God's Faith believes that Mary is and always was free of sin.

When the Archangel Gabriel appeared to Mary, he greeted her, "Hail, full of grace." As we all know, the Bible uses an unusual linguistic style--when certain words are used, they are used for a reason. That is no simple formal greeting; it has great meaning. Mary is FULL of grace--that is, her grace was never limited at any time by the stain of sin, original or personal. God chose her, among all the women who would ever exist, to be His own Mother. Out of honor to her and to His Son, He made her uncorrupted and without original sin.

So far, Mary is the ONLY person conceived immaculately. (Christ was sinless too, but He's called impeccable, not immaculate. It's a greater degree of sinlessness--meaning, He could NEVER sin, it would be impossible. Mary could sin, but she just didn't, because of God's grace.)

Happy Feast of the Immaculate Conception!

2006-12-08 13:32:31 · answer #3 · answered by loopy.wolf 1 · 1 0

apparently, no some can't or they just like to belittle your question.

either way.... when you read in Luke the account of the conception of Christ the Angel gabriel comes to her saying she was full of grace - not sin. Jesus was God, God could not have come into a sinful creature. God came to us as Jesus Christ and since God can never be touched by sin.... how could He have lived for 9 months in a womb of sin or be raised by woman of sin?! there are varying degrees of sinlessness IMO. Jesus was God so sin would not touch Him. however Mary was a human so her lack of sins were those of adam & eve/ aka humanity.
we are also told in scriptures - do not put new wine in old wineskins.

PS - i hope you get a chuckle out of some of the silly replies though... my favorites are those that think Mary's overshadowing by the Holy Spirit is "the Immaculate Conception".

2006-12-08 14:38:04 · answer #4 · answered by Marysia 7 · 0 0

Mary who? Cause I've never seen a sinless Mary.

2006-12-08 13:29:04 · answer #5 · answered by kelchristim1 2 · 2 2

Mary was absolutely sinless, because she was as mythological and as totally made up as Jesus was, and imaginary people can't commit sinful acts.

No literate scribe, person or historical writer of Jesus' own time ever made any mention or the slightest notation of him whatsoever. Nobody who ever wrote about Jesus ever saw or knew Jesus, and that's also true for Joseph and Mary.

:

2006-12-08 13:32:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Sorry but I'm going to answer anyway. The Bible never said she was sinless. Where did you here that?

2006-12-08 13:26:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 5 1

I know you said not to answer..but I can't help it..
The angel told Mary that she had found favour in the sight of God and that she was blessed among women..Luke chapter 1..but it was never said that she was perfect...and she was never "married" to God. She was a vessel that God chose to use to perform His miracle, and bring about the Savior.

I hope you will forgive me..I just had to answer though...blessings

2006-12-08 13:32:01 · answer #8 · answered by Judah's voice 5 · 1 0

i would have asked myself, why did GOD chose virgin Mary and my answer would have been because she is sinless..

2006-12-08 13:29:48 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

(Rom 3:23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

(Rom 5:12) Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

THE WORD HAS SPOKEN..... ALL - including Mary!

HOW could one be So Foolish to believe a Religion that says All Except Jesus and Mary = WERE SINLESS? ? ?

Thanks, RR

2006-12-08 13:28:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

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