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I have never heard of this apart from having sex with a minor. But can a woman be prosecuted, say, if the man claims he was under the influence of alcohol? Has anyone heard of such a claim? Is it likely to happen?
What if the woman is known to the man - say they are work colleagues?

2006-12-08 11:36:07 · 46 answers · asked by Gillian 1 in Family & Relationships Singles & Dating

46 answers

You can't rape the willing!

2006-12-08 12:02:24 · answer #1 · answered by westfield47130 6 · 0 0

The laws regarding rape work both ways. The law says no is NO at any moment during intercourse, so if a man changes his mind in the middle of it all and the woman persists it would technically be rape just as much as the more frequent male raping a woman.

The usual scenario would be an extra-marital affair in which the man changes his mind and isn't allowed to... back out of it... He doesn't want to, she does and suddenly you're looking at rape even if he shouldn't have gotten into such a situation in the first place.

Proving it is really hard, of course, because society is predisposed to believe the man was up for intercourse and wouldn't be forced to accept. If they are work collegues, it is going to be even harder to prove rape, but you just have to remember Michael Crichton's novel "Disclosure"

2006-12-08 12:03:28 · answer #2 · answered by NotsoaNonymous 4 · 0 0

Would be harder to prove, but yes, I believe a woman is as capable of making a man perform sexual acts against his will. After all an erection is to a certain extent an involuntary reaction beyond complete control. No man in the world could stop himself getting a stiffy if the right stimulus was applied. It would then be a matter of who is the stronger. Not sue if this has been put through a court of law yet though. As for being a work colleague, that is irrelevant.

2006-12-08 11:45:21 · answer #3 · answered by daddykojak 2 · 1 0

yes a woman can rape a man. I have heard it on the news a couple of times. But most men dont make a claim that it does happen. If u was a guy would u? It doesnt matter if u know them or not. alot of the women that are raped know the person who done it.

2006-12-08 11:40:54 · answer #4 · answered by wishstar28 4 · 3 0

Absolutely...the law states that any non-consensual is considered , regardless of who is the aggressor. Part of the law states that someone who is intoxicated can not legally give there consent, therefore if someone has had while drunk then realizes they didn't want it, it is legally . And as for whether they are known to one another, that is irrelevant-in fact, a lot of s are between people who know one another-which may be why so many go unreported. Random incidents where a guy just grabs a women off the street and sticks in in her don't happen as often as many people think.

2006-12-08 11:43:22 · answer #5 · answered by Dale H 1 · 1 0

I suppose if a man was given Viagra against his wishes (eg hidden in something else) and then if the woman was physically strong enough to pin him down, or had him sufficiently threatened in some way she could rape him by making him 'perform' against his wishes.
Sorry i dont know if a woman has actually been prosecuted or if it is a crime. But it ought to be a crime. Men have just as much rights as women to be protected by the law.

2006-12-08 11:43:21 · answer #6 · answered by Star 3 · 1 0

It is kinda hard to force a man to have sex...a gun to your head kinda ruins the mood! But I guess it is possible to force a man to perform some sort of sex act that does not require an erect penis, by using a threat of violence. Or, by using some sort of "date-rape" drug, which does not remove erectile capability (as most do), yet tosses his judgment out the window.
It is more likely that a woman would use one of their fortes: manipulating a man into bed, either under false pretenses, or by some sort of bribe or blackmail.
But typically, it is the woman who has what the man wants, when it comes to sexual activity--unless she is very unattractive somehow, or she has a specific uninterested "target" in mind. This is in part why it is almost unheard of for a woman to be prosecuted fro rape...though it DOES happen, and the victim is very reluctant to report it, out of gross embarrassment.

2006-12-08 11:56:26 · answer #7 · answered by grapejuice 2 · 0 0

In theory yes, it is possible. The case is always hard (pardon the pun) to prove since rape, in a traditional sense, requires an erection. If a man is able to get an erection, he is aroused so is there implied consent?

I am sure it has happened but I don't know any cases. There was a movie about it a few years back with Demi Moore - Disclosure, I believe. In most cases, the guy probably isn't too upset about it so that's probably why you don't hear much

2006-12-08 11:41:43 · answer #8 · answered by Achaholic 4 · 1 0

I can tell you it is possible as i have had it happen to me twice in my life and i;m only 27, first time i was 13 absolutly wasted at a party with older kids, next thing i knew i was being draged with my feet trailing in the gravel drive of the house, next thing i remember there was this older girl bounding up and down on me and my body feeling like i had just been beaten. She then stopped and insisted i went to her house. I made my excuse that my dad would be getting worried as i was only 13. She eventually conceded and allowed me to leave. The next morning i awouke to get up and lookin the mirror next to my bed i looked in horror to find love bites on just about every inch of my upper body. To top it off where i had been out cold she had sucked onto my chin leaving a massive love bite there as well. Couldn't face telling anyone at the time and didn't think anyone would believe me. My mum had once told me when i was a child it wasn't possible for a woman to do so. I believed her then, not anymore!

2006-12-08 11:48:43 · answer #9 · answered by PottZ79 2 · 1 0

tricky question, but yes a woman can rape a man,I'm sure i have heard about this or even read it in a magazine,I'm not sure that many men that this has happened to would report this,as I'm sure to most fellas out there would be to embarrassed to even think of reporting it,you've asked lots of questions,the best person to answer this would be someone that this has happened to,if a man has been raped then i would feel very sorry for him,they have feeling too,i think it takes a real man to cry,they can get hurt just as much as us girls

2006-12-08 12:05:06 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Uhhg, give me a break on some of these answers. Of course it is possible but not common at all. An erect **** makes it consensual? So the average guy gets a hardon 4-5 times in a night. I'm laying buck naked at the hotel fast asleep and I wake up and the maid is riding me! That was consensual? If I orgasm then yea I enjoyed the ride, if I wake up in disgust and push her off she still violated me! Just the facts!

2006-12-08 11:45:10 · answer #11 · answered by lifeis2short30 1 · 2 0

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