Was Mary, the mother of Jesus Christ, Sinless ?

Question

PLEASE DO NOT answer the question if you believe she was NOT sinless. I believe she was NOT. I am looking for intelligent, well thought-out answers as to why you believe she WAS sinless. Specifically, I'd like you to back it up with Scripture. If you can't do that, then at least back it up with your church's doctrine or other texts.

THANKS!

ONLY ANSWER THE QUESTION IF YOU THINK SHE WAS SINLESS !!!!

Wow, you people really can't read.....

Answer 1

She was perfect.

Answer 2

You ask if we think she was sinless, then say do not answer if you think she was not sinless? You just one to hear what you think to be true! That is very closed minded, you must read the bible in order to find the truth! The Bible is the final authority and if we are to come to truth, we must consistently compare what is being taught to see if it harmonizes with Scripture and if it doesn’t, then we are refute it and disbelieve it. God is the one who establishes truth and not a church, no matter how long they have been established on earth. Length of time is not a criteria for truth. When we look at the genealogy of Christ in Luke 3, which is the genealogy from Mary’s side, we see that God takes Mary’s genealogy all the way back to Adam which means she, like every human being, was a descendant of Adam which carries the sinful Adamic nature. Does the Bible bear this out? Let us see how many (pre-salvific) righteous people there are in the world.
(Rom 3:23 KJV) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
The term which God uses in this verse, "all have sinned." God is not saying some or a few or even the majority, He is definite in His usage of "ALL." This means that Mary was part of that "all."Since Mary was part of the human race at that time, she was guilty of sin as every other human being was.(Rom 3:10-20 KJV) As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: {11} There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.(1 Tim 2:5 KJV) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
Those in the Roman Catholic Church teach that Mary is a mediator between Jesus and us. This teaching is erroneous because the Bible teaches that Jesus is the ONLY mediator between God and man. The Bible does not teach anywhere that the redeemed of God in Heaven have any intercessory authority or ministry for those still remaining on earth.

Answer 3

Mary was born to sinful man therefore she was not even sinless when born. None are righteous. She was a virgin favored of GOD. Nothing more.

LK 1:29 Mary was greatly troubled at his words and wondered what kind of greeting this might be. 30 But the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary, you have found favor with God. 31 You will be with child and give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus. 32 He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, 33 and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever; his kingdom will never end."

LK 1:34 "How will this be," Mary asked the angel, "since I am a virgin?"

LK 1:35 The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.

Mary was obedient to the favor of GOD. LK 1:38 "I am the Lord's servant," Mary answered. "May it be to me as you have said."

Mary had A HEART FOR GOD.

Answer 4

Hello;

Only Jesus was sinless. "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feelings of our infimities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin." Hebrews 5:14. Mary was not in this category.
Romans 3:23;"For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God." That means you and me and her. "...while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." Mary as well.
"This is a faithful saying,and worthy of all acception, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners..." 1 Timothy 1:15.
"But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners..." Galatians 2:17.
"And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour." Luke 1:48.

Only sinners are in need of a Saviour!

She also had other children after Jesus.

Answer 5

there is no way she was sinless, Jesus was and is the only one sinless. Mary believed God, that is why she was the chosen mother. all through the old testament we see of people that were like that. all of Gods chosen, believed him, (at least eventually,) they did.
im sorry, i know you did not want me too answer the question, but i just had to. may God bless you, and i hope you have a merry Christmas

Answer 6

The only two people that the Bible mentions as being "Full of Grace" are Jesus and Mary. Full of grace means sinless, so she was. But also God could not share flesh and blood with a mother who sinned. If the blood of a sinner ran through His veins, then God himself would be guilty of the sin of Adam (original sin).

In another biblical reference, God said he would put enmity between the serpent and Mary.

Answer 7

I believe she was sinless because Jesus, who is fully God and fully human could not dwell in a sinful womb.

Answer 8

Sorry if you are looking for scripture all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God it is the only reason for the birth of Christ.If Mary could have overcome sin all mankind would be required to do the same no man could therefore God provided himself as a sacrifice for us all.

Answer 9

Sorry i dont fit your criteria for answering, but it says throughout the bible Jesus was and will be the only sinless person on this earth. There are no bible verses that even suggest other wise.

Answer 10

In the New Testament it clearly says that Jesus is the one who knew on sin that we may become the righteousness of God in Him. And then it says that ALL have sinned and come short of the glory of God. Christians say that Jesus is God so the "ALL" is all of mankind. Mary the Mother of Jesus being one of us having both a natural father and mother was a sinner part of the "ALL" of the passage. She needed redemption as much as any of us... Jim

Answer 11

"No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture."
But for a complete and intelligent description of the Catholic Church's view, see this:
http://www.catholicity.com/encyclopedia/i/immaculate_conception.html

(For the record, I don't believe, but I couldn't resist! This article at least describes the philosophy behind the belief. it does refer to other scriptural passages that "hint" at the reasons some believe.)