Why didn't Muhammed or Jesus know this? Why did Muhammed call them the holy word of God? Were they corrupted before Christ? Were they corrupted after Christ? Before or after Muhammed? when the Jews and Christians had differing veiws how would one or both of them corrupt both the Torah and Injeel in such a way that they agree without anyone noticing even Christ and Muhammed? Why do they still agree with books written that predate Muhammed? if he called them the holy word of God how is it those who follow him call them corrupt? How is they all agree with the resurrection of Christ but the Qur'an does not?
2006-12-07 21:02:28 · 6 answers · asked by djmantx 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Bosh you are corrupting scripture try reading it again.
2006-12-07 21:10:39 · update #1
Poki The reasons are clear Muslims keep saying it is corrupt while Jesus nor your false prophet never mentioned it. Neither did any prophet of God.Stands to reason if they were corrupted before Moses Christ might have mentioned it...none the less he fufilled prophesy from corrupt scripture and taught corrupt scripture that Muhammed called holy....sorry Muslim it makes no sense. If the word was corrupted before Christ and he never mentioned it then it must be okay after Christ huh? therefore we can rest assured that christ was crucified and atoned for sin correct?
2006-12-07 21:16:07 · update #2
Mutmain your arguement shows you do not understand the teachings of Chrsit who was a part of God and was here to die to atone for sin. If Christ wasGod he could not have been forsaken in the manner of which you are interpreting it. but as a follower of the true /christ we understand the reason for the atonement was because God could not be in agreement with sin therefore when Jesus took on the sins of mankind he was seperated for a time from the father.
2006-12-07 21:19:46 · update #3
Sam....Resurrection of Christ mentioned in the Haddith????
2006-12-07 21:22:43 · update #4
Of course the books of Moses are in agreement with the New Testament and these are the same as prior to the Muslim religion if any Muslim truly studied anything outside of what other Muslims tell them they would clearly find this truth. Jews eat pork because they did not accept the atonement of Christ and are still under law has nothing to do with a difference in scripture the same scripture is in the Bible but was fufilled by God when he atoned for sin.
2006-12-07 21:27:35 · update #5
It wasn't as there's a lot of research to back it up.
I don't think the Bible ever says that Moses raped anyone.
If He had God would have rebuked him.
The punishment for raping a woman was stoning. Times of war or peace.
2006-12-07 21:13:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
They were the Holy Books in their original forms which are no more. Qur'an repeatedly mentions Jews deliberately changing the word of God. How can you say that Jews and Christians still agree? Jews don't eat pork, Christians do!
Muslims believe that Jesus (peace be upon him) was raised alive and he will come again. Ressurection is considered only if someone dies. He didn't die on the cross but it was made to look so as it is mentioned in the Qur'an.
Moreover, according to the Bible, Jesus (peace be upon him) said while on the cross "O God! Why have thou forsaken me". No prophet would ever utter these words because God never forsakes a prophet.
2006-12-07 21:12:52 · answer #2 · answered by mutmainnah 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
If Bible is not corrupted,then ...........
If the Bible is our moral guide, then how can it make pornographic statements such as: “...they may eat their own dung and drink their own piss with you” (2 Kings 18:27)? Also consult Numbers 31 where a whole tribe of people, including the elderly and children are slaughtered. The only survivors were the virginal women, who were later raped by the “just and perfect” Moses and his men. Is that what you want your children reading on Sunday?
read this to you family to prove Bible is not corrupted
2006-12-07 21:09:18 · answer #3 · answered by boshhhhhhhhhh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i dont know why you guys keep asking Muslims about this even though it's well known that the bible is corrupted by men. how do you explain the so many scientific errors in the old and new Testament??? does God make mistakes? i dont think God makes mistakes and this alone is a sufficient proof that the bible is corrupted.
the books of Moses which are supposedly written by him says how old Moses was when he died!!! how can a dead man write?
all scholars agree that the old testament lost a big portion due to attacks on the temple by foreign invaders.
the new testament was written based on 24,000 manuscripts---not two are identical. which is right and which is wrong??
Jer 8:8 " 'How can you say, "We are wise,
for we have the law of the LORD,"
when actually the lying pen of the scribes
has handled it falsely? (NIV)
2006-12-07 21:10:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Honestly they are not Corrupt. It is just that the Holy Quran that is accepted because Prophet Mohammed (PBUH) was the last prophet to lead the people into path of Islam and therefore, Holy Quran , the last book. Torah and Injeel came before Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) that is why they have not been accepted. Also resurrection of Prophet Issa (Jesus) is mentioned in the Hadith, so you can refer to the Hadith for further details. Hope this helps
2006-12-07 21:13:06 · answer #5 · answered by Sam 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
They dont know.
They just say like their allah it is currupted just to justify their religion.
2006-12-07 22:40:51 · answer #6 · answered by Jac Tms 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋