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I've always wondered this. I know both mean "and" but how come in my spanish textbooks they use both? Is one castilian?

2006-12-07 11:32:37 · 9 answers · asked by JayJay 2 in Society & Culture Languages

9 answers

"y" means and, but so does "e"....

how can i explain it...

ok say this: y intelegente (ee een-tell-i-hent-ay)

doesn't sound right? saying eee eeee (y y)

So they replace the y with e, so instead it sounds like this:
ay een-tell-i-hent-ay

just like with "del"...instead of de el....they make it del.

Does that make sense? It's sort of hard to explain.

2006-12-07 11:54:07 · answer #1 · answered by Roxbaby 2 · 0 3

-e- is only used when the following word starts with an -i- to mark a distinction between the begining of the word and the -y- which is pronounced the same as the -i- so it is Jaime e Isabel not Jaime y Isabel. By the way castilian is the correct name of spanish it is only referred to as spanish because it came from spain
footnote: the explanation of alberto g is wrong the -e- is only applied when the -y (and)- is pronounced as an -i-

2006-12-07 12:20:08 · answer #2 · answered by Carlos 4 · 2 0

You use "y" as a conjunction (translation of and), and you substitute the "y" for an "e" when the next word starts with the phonem "i" that is the same of the "y". Like when in english you use "a" or "an". Is the same. The sound in spanish for a Y is the same as for a "I".

2006-12-07 11:39:08 · answer #3 · answered by ele 3 · 1 0

Y= Greek Y and when is used by it self means,, and,, Jose y Juan.. You will used e when the next letter is the same as Y and sound like i.
Example: Jose e Israel.
This is the reason why you have this changes in the language. Glad to help. Good luck. Buena suerte.

2006-12-07 11:51:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

"y" is what is normally used. "e" is only used when the next word starts with an "i".

ex. rubia y bonita
ex. bonita e inteligente


By the way, the Spanish you learn from a textbook is Castellano.

2006-12-07 11:43:30 · answer #5 · answered by Kharm 6 · 1 1

yes they mean the samething but in the spanish grammar, it's use in different ways like "yo y el" meaning "me and him" and the other is use as "martin e ingrid" which is also martin and ingrid, is just that in spannish you can't put "y" before a vowel that sounds like "Y", because "y" sounds like "i" and that doesn't sounds good get it? is just in some cases you have to use "e" instead of "Y"

2006-12-07 11:36:33 · answer #6 · answered by crazygirl123 6 · 1 0

Check this::::

the "y" is used like .... juan y andrea
juan and andrea

but when a word beggin with the voca (i) u must use:::: juan e Imelda or astuto e inteligente
juan and imelda or swipper and inteligent

2006-12-08 04:21:27 · answer #7 · answered by alex r 3 · 0 2

really ? i didn't know spanish used "y" and "e" .. i thought they only used Y.. Portuguese only uses "e" meaning and

2006-12-07 17:48:04 · answer #8 · answered by nola_cajun 6 · 1 0

diff letters, diff pronounciation

2006-12-07 11:39:39 · answer #9 · answered by RZA 4 · 1 1

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