There is this woman in her 40's and she wanted to have a child to keep her company in her old age, and of course child support til child is 18. Her brother said that men can be raped, not physically but by a drug (not sure which one) that can be given in a drink, and then the girl has sex with him, and gets pregnant, even though guy didn't want a child. Is this true? And if so, can this be proven in a court of law? It's been 5 years since child was born. Why would her brother say this to me after all this time. So was this guy raped?
2006-12-07 09:51:39 · 29 answers · asked by DREENA 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Singles & Dating
Ok. Then what drug was given? And how come the guy wasn't aware of being raped? Does it make him go to sleep or something? And can you prove it in court?
2006-12-07 09:54:08 · update #1
Yes, she is butch, the biker type.
2006-12-07 09:58:38 · update #2
I do think it's possible but it sure would be hard.....OH !!!!!!! NO PUN intended....sorry....lol...any way, they do have drugs that can cause a man to get and maintain an erection. But it would take a lot of planning. The woman would have to be ovulating in order to become pregnant. And if a drug was given to the man to obtain an erection I don't know if he would be able to ejaculate. BUT..then again when a man is having sex small amounts of sperm are released whether he ejaculates or not. And as for being able to prove it in court...how could you prove something like that ?? It's her word against his word. After 5 years there would be no way to find out if this man was given drugs in order to get this woman pregnant. It sounds a bit too far fetched to me. But, then again , I haven't ever had to RAPE a man. Almost any female can find a willing donor. Ya pick up some stranger in a bar and.... Wam Bam thank you Mam !!!.The deed is done. So, in my expert opinion....NO this man was not raped. Doesn't mean it can't happen though.
2006-12-07 10:22:34 · answer #1 · answered by anndee 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is possible, just like with women any sex that is not consentual is rape. But with it being so long ago it would be very hard to prove. Usually they would test for the drug in the persons system to prove it had been given to them. My advice would be for this person to consult an attorney and find out if there is anyway to prove it. And technically if the woman does not allow the man to spend time with the child he does not have to pay child support unless it is court ordered. Or if he doesn't want anything to do with the child he could relinquish all rights and will have nothing to do including the support of the child.
2006-12-07 09:56:38 · answer #2 · answered by Jesse's Girl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It may depend on the location or even which judge is making the call. For example, in California it was ruled that use of a date-rape drug does not constitute actual rape (as a criminal charge) because there is no actual force involved. Other criminal charges might still be applicable.
Nothing precludes a civil suit based on extortion, fraud, or similar basis; this is separate from criminal charges, but probably more to the point since payment of child support seems to be the primary issue here.
It isn't clear from the information given who the victim of this incident was, but if she was married to the father at the time it's virtually certain he will be held responsible. Otherwise there's a decent chance of avoiding liability for payments but little hope of successful criminal prosecution - not least because the statute of limitations has probably expired.
2006-12-07 10:01:28 · answer #3 · answered by dukefenton 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i always used to think there was no way a man could be raped because in order to have sex he needs an erection, and if he's got an erection then he must be enjoying it, and if he's enjoying it then its not rape....however....i have since changed my opinion since discovering that i can arouse my husband when we've had an argument and he's adamant that he doesn't want it...he tells me that his penis has a mind of its own, and alot of the time he cant control whether or not he gets an erection....so my answer is yes i now believe men can be raped....don't know about the drug but i guess you would have to use one unless you were some kind of huge butch woman that could over power a man.
2006-12-07 09:57:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Men can be raped by women, even without drugs. The human sexual response - in both men and women - *can* present, even if the person is under duress.
It's clearer-cut (with a male victim) when you add pharmaceuticals to the equation. If it happened *just* like that, sure thing he was raped. Slip him a little Rohypnol, and he's out totally out of it. Maybe mix in a little ground-up Viagra or something similar, just to make sure his body cooperates while his brain is offline.
Five years later, though? Sounds suspicious, and a judge/jury is going to think so, too. No way to prove that he was drugged that far out.
2006-12-07 10:01:20 · answer #5 · answered by Humberto 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes. every person knows that a man can get an erection looking at a pot hole..... they are just as capable of such a violent crime. Most times you never hear of it b/c of the stigma attached. More people need to take a stand against sex crimes and talk about them to break down the stigmas. You have to ask yourself "can a women be raped by being given the date rape drug "rohipnol"? yes. so why couldn't a man? if a person is incapacitated in any way, the other person has no right to pursue that act.
2016-05-23 04:40:01 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Visine drops put in alcohol drink can be classified as a date rape drug. You can drink the drink puke it up a minute later and still reap the effect. I know it happened to me. I passed out for 45 min. I was woke up, tried to stand up and couldnt. I puked repeatidly and breathing very shallow when I went to sleep that night. I had someone watching me incase I had to go to er. GHB is another name for date rape drug. I also lost my eyesight for a short while. Sorry you went through this, please dont be upset with the child and dont ever tell the child it is very traumatizing. It's not the childs fault that one of the parents lost their marbles!
2006-12-07 10:12:19 · answer #7 · answered by angel eyes 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A guy cannot be truly raped. Technically, if he was under a drug he would not be able to be passed out and sustain an erection. Sorry.
Emotionally, however, I suppose he could be raped; i.e., he did not want to have sex but it was forced on him. But that's unlikely. This guy is making it up.
2006-12-07 09:54:21 · answer #8 · answered by James 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the date rape drug (as its called) works on men and women. Just because a guy is knocked out doesn't mean his body will not respond to stimuli. If rubbed it will get hard and a woman would be able to get what she needs from him to become pregnant.
2006-12-07 09:55:45 · answer #9 · answered by .... 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How the hell can any of us know if we weren't there?
But to answer your question; Yes a guy can be raped, or at least I know I could and the woman wouldn't even have to use any drugs, unless she was fat and ugly....oh yeah....and smelled bad. But that's just me. If her snatch was real bushy she might have to drug me too.
2006-12-07 09:57:11 · answer #10 · answered by Nuts 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋